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51. The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of :
a) 25 nm
b) 30 nm
c) 10 nm
d) 15 nm
52. As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that aeroplane has a climb gradient of:
a) 3.3% with all engines operating.
b) 2.4% with two engines, 2.7% with three engines, 3% with four engines.
c) 5% with all engines operating and a climb gradient margin respectively of 0.8%, 0.9%, 1% with two, three and four engines, taking in account one engine inoperative.
d) 2.4% with all engines operating and 1.5% with one engine inoperative.
53. If in an instrument departure procedure, the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:
a) To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.
b) To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.
c) To ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track.
d) To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.
54. In an instrument departure procedure, the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
a) 0 ft.
b) 35 ft.
c) 3.3 % gradient.
d) 0.8 % gradient
55. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway center line within:
56. Turning departures provide track guidance within:
a) 20 km
b) 10 km
c) 5 km
d) 15 km
57. The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
a) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks)
b) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° for missed approach procedures.
c) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures.
d) The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories.
58. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descent below the OCA?
a) When the aircraft has the control tower in sight
b) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet
c) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight
d) When it seems possible to land
59. If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descent shall be made so as to :
a) Pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory.
b) Follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path.
c) Leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPT.
d) Pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.
60. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:
a) Mean sea level.
b) Aerodrome elevation.
c) Aerodrome reference point.
d) Relevant runway threshold.
61. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:
a) Base turn.
b) Procedure turn.
c) Race track.
d) Reversal track.
62. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descent below the MDA should not be made until: 1. The pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. Visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made. The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:
a) 1, 2, 3.
b) 2, 3.
c) 1, 2.
d) 1, 3.
63. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
a) Initial approach segment.
b) Intermediate approach segment.
c) Arrival segment.
d) Final approach segment.
64. In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:
a) 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).
b) 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1,968 ft).
c) 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2,955 ft)
d) 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2,955 ft).
65. In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:
a) 1 minute.
b) 2 minutes.
c) 1 minute 30 seconds.
d) 3 minutes.
66. How many separate segments does an instrument approach procedure have?
c) Up to 5
d) Up to 4
67. In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories c, d, e aircraft for:
a) 1 minute 30 seconds.
b) 1 minute.
c) 2 minutes
d) 1 minute 15 seconds.
68. In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centerline, after being established on track, more than:
a) One and a half of scale deflection.
b) Half a scale deflection
c) One scale deflection.
d) A quarter of scale deflection.
69. Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
a) Initial, intermediate and final.
b) Arrival, intermediate and final.
c) Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.
d) Initial and final.
70. Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
71. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
a) Visual manoeuvring (circling).
b) Contact approach.
c) Visual approach.
d) Aerodrome traffic pattern.
72. A circling approach is:
a) A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring.
b) A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.
c) A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.
d) A contact flight manoeuvre.
73. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:
c) Landing runway.
d) Final missed approach track.
74. On a non-precision approach, a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centerline is:
a) 30 degrees or less
b) 40 degrees or less
c) 20 degrees or less
d) 10 degrees or less
75. Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is :
76. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:
a) 30 m (98 ft)
b) 90 m (295 ft)
c) 50 m (164 ft)
d) 120 m (384 ft)
77. Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
a) 5 nm
b) 25 nm
c) 20 nm
d) 10 nm
78. In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:
a) 200 ft
b) The OCH
c) 350 ft
d) 400 ft
79. (IR) If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the pilot shall:
a) Require immediate assistance from ATC which is obliged to provide radar vectors in order to maintain obstacle clearance.
b) Make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and follow the missed approach procedures.
c) Descend further in order to reach an altitude where visual reference can be maintained.
d) Climb straight ahead to the minimum sector altitude
80. (IR) Where does the missed approach procedure start?
a) At the missed approach point.
b) At DH/MDH.
c) At any point that the criteria to continue the approach is lost.
d) Over the threshold of the instrument runway
81. (IR) Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?
a) It is not possible to guarantee full obstacle clearance in this segment.
b) This is the segment in which speed and configuration are adjusted.
c) Usually track guidance is poor in this segment resulting in a requirement for a high MOC.
d) Pilots cannot cope with track maintenance a high rate of descent.
82. What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?
b) 3.3 %
c) 2.5 %
83. What will be your action if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern?
a) Inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance.
b) Follow the radio communication failure procedure.
c) A non-standard holding pattern is permitted.
d) It is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilot’s discretion.
84. In a holding pattern, all turns are to be made at a :
a) Rate of 3°per second.
b) Maximum bank angle of 25°.
c) Rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
d) Rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
85. Entering a holding pattern at FL110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed?
a) 230 kt IAS.
b) 230 kt TAS.
c) 240 kt IAS.
d) 240 kt TAS.
86. Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?
a) To the right.
b) Teardrop to the left and then to the right.
c) To the left.
d) First right and then to the left.
87. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
a) 1 minute
b) 30 seconds
c) 2 minutes
d) 1,5 minutes
88. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
a) 2 minutes 30 seconds.
b) 1 minute 30 seconds
c) 1 minute.
d) 2 minutes.
89. In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:
90. In a standard holding pattern, turns are made:
a) In a direction depending on the entry.
b) To the right.
c) To the left.
d) In a direction depending on the wind direction.
91. Standard airway holding pattern below 14,000 ft:
a) Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound
b) Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound
c) Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
d) Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
92. (IR) The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to:
a) Magnetic track in relation to the three entry sectors.
b) Magnetic heading in relation to the three entry sectors.
c) True heading in relation to the three entry sectors.
d) True track in relation to the three entry sectors.
93. (IR) Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?
b) Yes even where DME is used, the maximum length is always in time.
c) No, where DME is used, it may be specified in terms of distance.
d) No, where g/s is less than 65 kt, the outbound leg must be at least 2 nm long.
94. The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:
a) 1,500 ft.
b) 2,500 ft.
c) 1,000 ft
d) 3,000 ft.
95. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:
a) Altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude
b) Altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
c) Flight level on or below the transition level
d) Flight level on or below the transition altitude
96. During flight through the transition layer, the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:
a) Altitude above mean sea level during descent
b) Flight level during descent
c) Altitude above mean sea level during climb
d) Either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb
97. The transition level:
a) Shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established
b) For the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP
c) Shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established
d) Is calculated and decided by the commander
98. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:
a) At transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.
b) At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.
c) Only at transition altitude.
d) Only at transition level.
99. What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?
a) Mode A code 7600.
b) Mode B code 7600.
c) Mode A code 7500.
d) Mode A code 7700.
100. When the aircraft carries serviceable mode C equipment, the pilot:
a) Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC.
b) Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions.
c) Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC.
d) Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace.
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