1. 51. The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of :

2. 52. As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that aeroplane has a climb gradient of:

3. 53. If in an instrument departure procedure, the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:

4. 54. In an instrument departure procedure, the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:

5. 55. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway center line within:

6. 56. Turning departures provide track guidance within:

7. 57. The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:

8. 58. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descent below the OCA?

9. 59. If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descent shall be made so as to :

10. 60. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:

11. 61. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:

12. 62. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descent below the MDA should not be made until: 1. The pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. Visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made. The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:

13. 63. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:

14. 64. In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:

15. 65. In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:

16. 66. How many separate segments does an instrument approach procedure have?

17. 67. In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories c, d, e aircraft for:

18. 68. In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centerline, after being established on track, more than:

19. 69. Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

20. 70. Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:

21. 71. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:

22. 72. A circling approach is:

23. 73. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:

24. 74. On a non-precision approach, a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centerline is:

25. 75. Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is :

26. 76. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:

27. 77. Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:

28. 78. In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:

29. 79. (IR) If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the pilot shall:

30. 80. (IR) Where does the missed approach procedure start?

31. 81. (IR) Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?

32. 82. What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?

33. 83. What will be your action if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern?

34. 84. In a holding pattern, all turns are to be made at a :

35. 85. Entering a holding pattern at FL110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed?

36. 86. Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?

37. 87. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?

38. 88. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?

39. 89. In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:

40. 90. In a standard holding pattern, turns are made:

41. 91. Standard airway holding pattern below 14,000 ft:

42. 92. (IR) The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to:

43. 93. (IR) Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?

44. 94. The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:

45. 95. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:

46. 96. During flight through the transition layer, the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:

47. 97. The transition level:

48. 98. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

49. 99. What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?

50. 100. When the aircraft carries serviceable mode C equipment, the pilot:

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