451_536_CAAV_ATPL_QUESTION_BANK

451_536_CAAV_ATPL_QUESTION_BANK

1. 451. With the autopilot engaged, either sidestick can be moved freely.

a) True
b) False, moving either sidestick will cause the autopilot(s) to disengage.
c) False, only the nonflying pilot's sidestick will freely move.
d) None of the above is correct.

2. 452. What consider being best rate of climb speed?

a) 250 knots below 10,000 feet.
b) ECON climb speed.
c) Turbulence speed.
d) Orange dot speed.

3. 453. When can managed vertical navigation be engaged?

a) Only after managed lateral navigation has been engaged.
b) Only after managed lateral navigation and managed speed have been engaged.
c) At any time regardless of the engagement status of lateral navigation or speed.
d) Only after managed speed has been engaged.

4. 454. What are the different types of flight guidance?

a) Slaved and managed.
b) Automatic and manual.
c) Managed and selected.
d) Managed and manual.

5. 455. You have been cleared to intercept the localizer. You have pushed the LOC push button on the FCU. If all necessary data has been entered in the MCDU, can you now engage both autopilots?

a) Yes.
b) No, the LOC must capture before both autopilots will engage.
c) No, the APPR pushbutton must be pushed.
d) None of the above is correct.

6. 456. While taxiing on the ground, the FMGS displays the position of the aircraft using:

a) IRS and DME/DME.
b) IRS only.
c) IRS and VOR/DME.
d) DME/DME and VOR/DME.

7. 457. When the thrust levers are moved to the takeoff position, the FMGS updates its position at takeoff using:

a) IRS/DME/DME positioning.
b) IRS/ILS/DME positioning.
c) The navigation database and the takeoff runway entered into the MCDU by the pilot.
d) The VOR currently tuned.

8. 458. On which ECAM page could the flight crew check the exact pressure of the crew oxygen cylinder?

a) The PRESS page.
b) The DOORS page.
c) The COND page.
d) The STATUS page.

9. 459. At approximately what cabin altitude should the passenger oxygen masks drop?

a) 12,500 feet.
b) 15,000 feet.
c) 10,000 feet.
d) 14,000 feet.

10. 460. When does passenger oxygen flow start?

a) When the mask is pulled toward the seat.
b) When the oxygen doors open.
c) When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000.
d) When the oxygen button is pushed.

11. 461. Illumination of the SYS ON light is an indication that:

a) All of the passenger masks have deployed.
b) The crew must depress the MASK MAN ON pb in order to deploy the masks.
c) Electrical power has been sent to deploy the masks, either manually or automatically.
d) The bottle is empty.

12. 462. What is the purpose of the CREW SUPPLY push button?

a) When selected to ON, it supplies oxygen to the third and fourth occupants' mask in the cockpit.
b) When selected to ON, it allows the flow of low pressure oxygen to the crew's masks.
c) In case of low cylinder pressure it allows the crew to tap into the passenger oxygen system.
d) None of the above is correct.

13. 463. Approximately how long are the passenger oxygen generators able to produce oxygen?

a) 15 minutes.
b) 30 minutes.
c) 20 minutes.
d) 25 minutes.

14. 464. What will depressing the guarded MASK MAN ON pb accomplish?

a) A signal is sent to the chemical oxygen generators to start the flow of oxygen to the masks.
b) It manually sends a signal to open the oxygen mask doors.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

15. 465. What is indicated by a missing green thermal plug during an exterior preflight?

a) This is normal indication, the green thermal plug only appears if the oxygen cylinder is low.
b) An oxygen system overpressure or thermal discharge.
c) An external fire discharge has been activated.
d) The crew oxygen bottle is empty.

16. 466. When engine and wing anti-ice are in use, and a BMC detects a bleed leak:

a) The wing anti-ice on the associated side will be lost, and the engine anti-ice on the associated side will continue to function.
b) The wing and engine anti-ice on the associated side will be lost.
c) Only the engine anti-ice on the associated side will be lost.
d) None of the above is correct.

17. 467. APU bleed air, when selected

a) Has priority over engine bleed air.
b) Will supply bleed air only if the ENG BLEED pb's are selected OFF.
c) Will supply bleed air only if the X BLEED selector is selected OPEN.
d) Does not have priority over engine bleed air.

18. 468. Bleed leak protection for the APU pneumatic duct is provided by:

a) Detection loops associated with BMC #1.
b) Detection loops associated with BMC #2.
c) The APU BMC.
d) All of the above are correct.

19. 469. If a BMC detects a bleed leak:

a) All valves that could supply pneumatic air to the area of the bleed leak will automatically close.
b) The crew must isolate the affected leak.
c) All pneumatic valves close automatically.
d) None of the above is correct.

20. 470. With both engines operating, an ENG BLEED pb FAULT light will illuminate when:

a) The valve position differs from that of the push button.
b) The X BLEED selector is selected to SHUT.
c) The X BLEED selector is selected to OPEN.
d) None of the above is correct.

21. 471. The crew may directly control the following bleed valves:

a) Engine, engine high pressure, APU.
b) Engine, intermediate pressure, APU.
c) Crossbleed.
d) Engine, APU, crossbleed.

22. 472. With the APU running, the APU BLEED push button selected ON and the X BLEED selector to AUTO, the APU will:

a) Only supply bleed air to the left side.
b) Supply pneumatic air to both sides of the aircraft because the pneumatic crossbleed valve automatically opens.
c) Will supply bleed air only to the left side unless the X BLEED selector is selected OPEN.
d) Only supply bleed air to the right side.

23. 473. If a BMC fails:

a) The remaining BMC will automatically assume most of the failed BMC’s functions.
b) All systems associated with the failed BMC also fail.
c) The associated bleed valves close.
d) None of the above is correct.

24. 474. To start the APU the:

a) BAT 1 and 2 push buttons must be selected to ON.
b) BAT 1 and 2 push buttons do not need to be selected ON if external power is available.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

25. 475. What is the function of the APU GEN push button located on the overhead electrical panel?

a) When selected OFF, the APU generator is de-energized.
b) It is normally left in the lights out position.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

26. 476. When the APU MASTER SW is selected ON:

a) The APU computer automatically starts the APU.
b) The APU computer automatically completes a self-test, opens the air intake flap and supplies fuel pressure.
c) Connects the APU generator to the aircraft electrical system.
d) The APU door opens.

27. 477. The APU may be started up to what altitude?

a) The APU can be started at any altitude provided normal aircraft electrical power is available.
b) The APU can be started up to 35,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries.
c) The APU can be started up to 30,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries.
d) Both a and b are correct.

28. 478. With the engines off, if the AVAIL light is illuminated on both the APU START push button and the EXT PWR push button, what is the source of electrical power for the aircraft busses?

a) External power.
b) The APU.
c) It is not possible to determine without checking the ECAM.
d) The aircraft battery.

29. 479. The APU START push button, when selected ON, will:

a) Connect the APU generator to the aircraft electrical system.
b) Open the air intake flap and supply fuel pressure.
c) Start the APU if the APU MASTER SW was previously selected ON.
d) None of the above is correct.

30. 480. The APU system page will appear on the ECAM:

a) Automatically whenever the APU is started and AC power is available.
b) When selected by the crew.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

31. 481. What happens to the cockpit door with electrical power failure?

a) It operates normally on HOT BAT bus.
b) It automatically locks.
c) It automatically unlocks.
d) None of the above is correct.

32. 482. Can the flight compartment sliding windows be used as emergency exits?

a) No, they are not approved emergency exits.
b) No, they are too small.
c) Yes, in the cockpit coat closet is a rope ladder that can be used in such an event.
d) Yes, there are escape ropes mounted above each window behind an access panel

33. 483. What does illumination of the red cabin pressure light represent on the main cabin door?

a) This indicates that the aircraft cabin is still pressurized and the cabin door should not be opened.
b) This indicates that the evacuation slide is armed.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

34. 484. How is it determined that the cockpit sliding window is closed and locked?

a) The red ring below the release button should not be in view.
b) The red ring below the release button should be in view.
c) The locking pin was placed in the forward position when the window was closed.
d) The pin is engaged.

35. 485. How many cabin entrance, overwing emergency exits and cargo doors are on the A321?

a) Four cabin, two overwing, and two cargo.
b) Four cabin, four overwing, and three cargo.
c) Two cabin, four overwing, and three cargo.
d) Four cabin, two overwing, and two cargo.

36. 486. Where is the emergency axe located?

a) In a first class special overhead bin, aircraft right.
b) In the cockpit.
c) In the forward galley coat closet, aircraft left.
d) Partition storage, door 1L.

37. 487. How many portable fire extinguishers are in the cockpit?

a) One CO2 in the cockpit.
b) One Halon in the cockpit and one Water.
c) One Halon in the cockpit.
d) One CO2 and one Halon.

38. 488. Once activated, how can you cancel the EVAC alert from the cockpit?

a) HORN SHUT OFF.
b) COMMAND switch.
c) Only able to deactivate from cabin.
d) OFF switch.

39. 489. On the cockpit overhead panel there is a three position EMERGENCY EXIT LT switch. What lights are associated with this switch?

a) Exit signs, emergency lights, and floor path lights if installed.
b) Exit signs, emergency lights, main panel flood lights, and floor path lights if installed.
c) Exit signs, emergency lights, dome lights, main panel flood lights, and the standby compass light.
d) Exit signs, and the standby compass light.

40. 490. When the door arming lever is in the ARMED position, opening the door from the outside will:

a) The power assist will rapidly open the door.
b) Automatically deploy and inflate the evacuation slide.
c) Only arm the slide.
d) Disarm the door.

41. 491. How many survival kits are there on board the aircraft, and where are they located?

a) Four; one is installed within each slide raft.
b) Four; two in an overhead bin in first class and two in an overhead bin in the aft part of coach.
c) Two; one in a first class overhead bin and one in an aft coach overhead bin.
d) None of the above.

42. 492. The PBE provides a breathable atmosphere for approximately ...........minutes.

a) 12
b) 15
c) 17
d) 20

43. 493. The HALON fire extinguisher should be used on what type fires?

a) Electrical and flammable liquid fires.
b) Electrical and ordinary combustibles.
c) Electrical and burning metals.
d) Electrical fires.

44. 494. What are the indications that the PBE oxygen supply has depleted?

a) The hood collapses to the point that it touches your face or by a flashing red light in addition to the flashing green light.
b) The sound of the oxygen flow stops and flashing red and green lights appear.
c) No 02 supply indications & lights only indicate time.
d) Both a and b are correct.

45. 495. Can ALL the evacuation slides be used as life rafts?

a) Yes.
b) Yes, the double-lane overwing evacuation slides are designed as life rafts.
c) No, only the main cabin door evacuation slides can be used as life rafts.
d) None of the above is correct.

46. 496. How is crew oxygen provided?

a) Single bottle.
b) One bottle per crew member.
c) Oxygen generator.
d) One oxygen bottle with an oxygen generator.

47. 497. How many persons can a standby life-raft carry?

a) 40.
b) 30.
c) 35.
d) 25.

48. 498. What is Crew Oxygen minimum pressure, where can it be read?

a) 1300 PSI, ECAM DOOR/OXY page.
b) 950 PSI, gauge on the bottle.
c) 850 PSI, gauge on the bottle.
d) 850 PSI, ECAM DOOR/OXY page.

49. 499. What does HORN SHUTOFF on the EVAC panel do?

a) Silences EVAC signals throughout the cabin and cockpit.
b) Cancels the EVAC alert
c) Silences EVAC signal in cockpit.
d) None of the above is correct.

50. 500. How many first aid kits are available?

a) 2.
b) 1.
c) 3.
d) 4.

51. 501. With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, if DC shed essential bus is unpowered:

a) The emergency lights and exit signs will illuminate automatically.
b) The escape path markings, if installed, will automatically illuminate.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

52. 502. What abnormals would cause the FADEC to automatically abort a start?

a) A hot start, an overtemp, a stalled start or no lightup.
b) A hot start, a stalled start, an overtemp or APU underspeed.
c) A hot start, an overtemp or an engine overspeed.
d) An engine overspeed.

53. 503. What is considered to be the active range of the A/THR system?

a) During single engine operations from just above the IDLE stop to the FLX/MCT detent.
b) During two engine operations from just above the IDLE stop to the CL detent.
c) Both a and b above.
d) None of the above is correct.

54. 504. During an in-flight start or a manual start, will the FADEC auto abort for an abnormal?

a) Yes and no; it will for an in-flight start but not for a manual start.
b) No
c) Yes

55. 505. What does the FLEX represent in the FLX/MCT detent?

a) This is a reduced thrust setting used for takeoff.
b) This is the maximum continuous thrust setting for single-engine operations.
c) This is the thrust setting that should be chosen in the case of a single-engine go-around.
d) None of the above is correct.

56. 506. The left column, first line of the FMA is used to indicate:

a) If A/THR is off, armed, or active.
b) The mode of the A/THR in use when A/THR is armed or active.
c) Amber caution messages.
d) The thrust indication.

57. 507. If the thrust levers are set in the idle detent, is Alpha floor protection still available?

a) No, because the IDLE detent is out of the A/THR active range.
b) Yes, thrust lever position is disregarded.
c) Yes, as long as "A/THR" appears in Column five.
d) None of the above is correct.

58. 508. When Alpha floor is activated, what power setting is automatically commanded and what FMA annunciation would appear in Column one?

a) TOGA; A. FLOOR.
b) CLB; CLB.
c) MCT; THR LK.
d) THR LK.

59. 509. Is it possible to cancel Alpha floor?

a) No, Alpha floor protection is always available.
b) Yes, by placing the thrust levers to IDLE.
c) Yes, by depressing the ATHR push button on the FCU or by use of the instinctive disconnect buttons.

60. 510. What is the difference between variable thrust and the speed mode?

a) In the variable thrust mode, thrust is fixed and speed is controlled by the elevator.
b) In the fixed thrust mode, thrust is variable and speed is controlled by the elevator.
c) In the fixed thrust mode, thrust is fixed and the elevator controls the speed.
d) None of the above is correct.

61. 511. Where is the thrust reduction altitude found and is the number always the same?

a) Column four, row three of the FMA; it will always be 1500 ft. AGL.
b) TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU; it can be modified.
c) PROG page of the MCDU; it can be modified in order to meet constraints.
d) TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU; it cannot be modified.

62. 512. Is any thrust lever action required if an engine failed at rotation while using FLEX takeoff power?

a) Yes.
b) No.

63. 513. When is T.O. INHIBIT and LDG INHIBIT active?

a) TO 1500 feet AGL, LND below 750 feet AGL.
b) TO 1000 feet AGL, LN-D below 1000 feet AGL.
c) TO 750 feet AGL, LND below 1500 feet AGL.
d) TO 1500 feet AGL, LND below 1000 feet AGL.

64. 514. What is required for the FADEC to compute a reduced thrust setting?

a) A FLEX temperature must be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.
b) Nothing, it is an automatic function of the FADEC.
c) A FLEX temperature must be entered on the TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU.
d) Both a and c are correct.

65. 515. Alpha floor protection is available:

a) From lift off and down to 100 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration.
b) From lift off and down to 50 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration.
c) From lift off and down to 500 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration.
d) From lift off and down to 750 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration.

66. 516. While flying the airplane with A/THR active, the speed knob is pulled and turned to aselected speed that happens to be slower than Alpha prot. What speed will the A/C slow to?

a) Green dot.
b) V1.
c) Vso
d) Vls.

67. 517. When does oil quantity indication begin to pulse?

a) Decreasing below 5 qts.
b) During engine start.
c) Oil quantity detector fault.
d) During idle thrust.

68. 518. Does the FADEC provide EGT limit protection constantly?

a) Yes, in all phases-of flight.
b) No, EGT limit protection is only available during ground auto starts.
c) No, EGT limit protection is only available during ground auto starts and single-engine operations.
d) None of the above is correct.

69. 519. The idle setting on the aircraft is capable of modulating due to certain conditions. During descent, what might cause the IDLE N1 setting to increase?

a) The slats are extended.
b) For a higher than normal bleed air demand or warmer than normal engine oil temp in flight.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

70. 520. What conditions automatically activate continuous ignition?

a) Engine flameout, engine anti-ice selected OFF and EIU failure.
b) Engine flameout, TO/GA selected in fight, engine anti-ice selected ON and flaps lever 0.
c) Engine flameout, ignition delay, engine anti-ice selected OFF and HMU failure.
d) None of the above is correct.

71. 521. How can A/THR be ARMED automatically?

a) Whenever a takeoff or go-around is initiated.
b) When alpha floor protection is activated.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

72. 522. Can the engines be overboosted in the TOGA position?

a) No, because the EIU is responsible for monitoring N1 and N2.
b) Yes, if the autothrust function is not active.
c) No, because the ECU provides engine protection limit by monitoring N1, N2, and HMU fuel flow adjustments.
d) None of the above is correct.

73. 523. During an automatic start, the FADEC controls:

a) The start valves, igniters and fuel flow.
b) The start valves, igniters, HP and LP fuel valves.
c) The start valves, igniters, HP and LP fuel valves, and fuel flow.
d) The igniters and fuel flow.

74. 524. How many FADEC's are installed in the aircraft?

a) Two, one per engine.
b) One, with two engine control units (ECU).
c) Two, one is the active FADEC and the other is a standby.
d) Two per engine.

75. 525. How many thrust lever positions are there, and how are they labeled?

a) Six; TO/GA, MCT, FLEX, CL, IDLE and REV IDLE.
b) Six; TO/GA, FLX/MCT, CL, IDLE, REV IDLE and MREV.
c) Four; TO/GA, FLX/MCT, CL, IDLE.
d) Five; TO/GA, FLX/MCT, CL, IDLE and REV IDLE

76. 526. What are the two basic modes of the A/THR system?

a) Thrust and Mach.
b) Variable thrust and fixed speed.
c) Mach and speed.
d) Thrust and speed.

77. 527. What would happen during the takeoff roll if the thrust levers were set to the FLX/MCT detent without FLEX temperature being entered?

a) Nothing, the thrust setting would be at flex since FADEC automatically calculates a reduced thrust setting.
b) A level two warning would sound along with the appearance of an ECAM message.
c) The thrust setting would be MCT and there would be no corresponding warnings.
d) None of the above is correct.

78. 528. How is manual arming of the A/THR system accomplished?

a) Advance at least one thrust lever to the TOGA or FLX/MCT detent with at least one Flight Director (FD) on.
b) By placing the thrust levers into the active range.
c) By pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU confirm the pb illuminates green or confirm an A/THR annunciation is displayed in column 5 of the FMA.
d) None of the above is correct.

79. 529. Holding the instinctive disconnect push button for more than fifteen seconds will:

a) Disengage the A/THR (including A.floor) for the remainder of the flight.
b) Disengage the A/THR (excluding A.floor) for the remainder of the flight.
c) Disengage the A/THR (including A.floor) until below 500 feet AGL for the remainder of the flight.
d) Disengage the A/THR (including A.floor) until below 1,000 feet AGL for the remainder of the flight.

80. 530. What would happen in flight if the FADEC's alternator failed?

a) Automatic control of the engine would be lost.
b) The standby channel of the ECU would take over.
c) The FADEC would now be powered using ship's power.
d) The FADEC would now be powered using ship's battery power.

81. 531. Is there any mechanical linkage between the thrust levers and the engines?

a) There is a mechanical linkage in case the ECU fails.
b) No, it is totally electrical.
c) No, it is electrically powered and hydraulically actuated.
d) There is a fiber optic backup.

82. 532. Verification that Autothrust (A/THR) is active can be made by:

a) Watching the automatic movement of the thrust levers.
b) Only when the thrust levers are set at TOGA.
c) Only by looking at column five of the FMA.
d) None of the above is correct.

83. 533. As far as FMA annunciations are concerned, what would indicate that the A/THR system is active?

a) “A/THR” changes from blue to white as shown in column five, line three.
b) “SPEED” appears in green in column one, line one.
c) “A/THR” changes from white to blue in column five, line one.
d) “SPEED” appears in amber in column one, line one.

84. 534. During normal operation, in what detent are the thrust levers positioned once the thrust reduction altitude has been reached?

a) MCT
b) FLX
c) CR
d) CLB

85. 535. The FADEC will automatically abort an abnormal start thereby providing engine limit protection, but will the FADEC also automatically dry crank the engine?

a) No, that is why there is a CRANK selection on the ENG MODE selector.
b) Yes, even if the crew interrupts the start by placing the ENG MASTER switch to OFF.
c) Yes, as long as the ENG MASTER switch remains in the ON position.
d) None of the above is correct.

86. 536. During a manual start, how is the start valve opened?

a) a. It is automatic once the ENG MASTER is placed to the ON position.
b) b. By depressing the ENG MAN START pb's on the overhead panel.
c) c. By depressing the ENG MAN START pb's on the overhead panel while the ENG MODE selector is out of the NORM position.
d) d. None of the above is correct.

This is more feedback!

This is the feedback!

feedback!