401_450_CAAV_ATPL_QUESTION_BANK

401_450_CAAV_ATPL_QUESTION_BANK

1. 401. Anti-ice and de-icing protection is provided for:

a) The engine nacelles and three outboard wing slats.
b) The engine nacelles, three outboard wing slats, and the horizontal stabilizer.
c) The engine nacelles, three outboard slats, horizontal stabilizer, and the vertical stabilizer.
d) None of the above is correct.

2. 402. VOR, ILS, and NDB raw data information is displayed on the ND in which of the followingmodes?

a) VOR, RMI and NDB information may be displayed in the ARC or ROSE NAV modes.
b) VOR and ILS information can be displayed in the ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes respectively
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

3. 403. Weather radar can be displayed in what modes on the ND?

a) ARC and ROSE NAV modes only.
b) All modes except plan.
c) ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes.
d) ROSE NAV mode only.

4. 404. If the lower ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?

a) By pressing and holding the related systems page push button on the ECAM control panel, the page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM.
b) By rotating the ECAM/ND XFR switch on the switching panel, the lower ECAM page will be transferred to either the Captain or FO's ND.
c) Both a and b are wrong.
d) Both a and b are correct.

5. 405. What causes a display unit (DU) to go blank?

a) Display unit internal failure.
b) No power.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) The circuit breaker-has popped.

6. 406. What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?

a) DMC failure.
b) No power.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) The circuit breaker for that particular DU has popped.

7. 407. Once the crewmember has completed viewing a specific system, what is the correct procedure for clearing the screen and returning it to a normal presentation?

a) Press the respective system push button again.
b) It goes away by itself.
c) Press CLR on the ECAM control panel.
d) None of the above.

8. 408. How many DMCs are there?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

9. 409. RNAV position information is displayed on the ND in which of the following modes?

a) ARC and ROSE NAV modes only.
b) ARC, ROSE and PLAN modes.
c) ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes.
d) ROSE VOR mode.

10. 410. Where is the information displayed by DMC #1 and DMC#2?

a) DMC#1 supplies data to PFD#1, ND#1, and lower ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data to PFD#2, ND#2, and upper ECAM.
b) DMC#1 supplies data to PFD#1, PFD#2, and upper ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data to ND#1, ND#2, and lower ECAM.
c) DMC#1 supplies data to PFD#1, ND#1, and upper ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data to PFD#2, ND#2, and lower ECAM.
d) DMC#1 supplies data to PFD#1, ND#2, and lower ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data to PFD#2, ND#1, and upper ECAM.

11. 411. The presence of VOR1 in red on the ND indicates:

a) The VOR station currently tuned is out of range.
b) The VOR station currently tuned is out of service.
c) The #1 VOR receiver has failed its self-test.
d) The #1 VOR receiver is inoperative.

12. 412. After a single DMC failure, how could a crew member recover the display units?

a) Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3.
b) Once a DMC has failed, the information is unrecoverable.
c) It is done automatically.
d) None of the above is correct.

13. 413. If the UPPER ECAM DU fails, what will be displayed on the lower unit?

a) System display page.
b) Engines and Warning page (E/WD)
c) Status page.
d) None of the above is correct.

14. 414. Which hydraulic system(s) supply pressure to the landing gear system?

a) Green
b) Blue
c) Yellow and blue
d) Green and blue

15. 415. With the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch in the ON position, if the BSCU detects a brake system malfunction and/or normal braking is not available:

a) Transition to the alternate brake system is automatic.
b) The crew will be notified with an ECAM message only if after touchdown the brake system does actually malfunction.
c) The crew must select alternate brakes.
d) Both a and b are correct.

16. 416. When the landing gear is gravity extended, will nose wheel steering be available?

a) No.
b) Only if the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is selected ON.
c) Limited nose wheel steering is available only through the captain's rudder pedals.
d) None of the above is correct.

17. 417. What is indicated by the autobrake DECEL lights?

a) Airplane deceleration is 25% of selected rate.
b) Airplane deceleration is 50% of selected rate.
c) Airplane deceleration is 100% of selected rate.
d) Airplane deceleration is 80% of selected rate.

18. 418. If the landing gear was gravity extended using the hand crank on the center pedestal, landing gear position must be verified through the:

a) Landing gear indications depicted on the ECAM and, if available, the center panel LDG GEARindicator panel lights.
b) The landing gear viewers.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

19. 419. If the BSCU detects a brake system malfunction in flight with the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch in the ON position:

a) The crew will be notified with an ECAM message.
b) The crew will be notified with an ECAM message after touchdown if the brake system does malfunction.
c) The crew must manually select alternate brakes.
d) All of the above are correct.

20. 420. What does each turn of the gravity gear extension handle do?

a) Open gear doors, drop gear, shut doors.
b) Open gear doors, unlock gear, drop gear.
c) Shutoff hydraulic pressure, open doors, unlock gear.
d) Open gear doors, shutoffs hydraulics, unlock gear, drop gear.

21. 421. Can normal landing gear operation be restored after a gravity extension if green hydraulic pressure is available?

a) Restoration is always possible.
b) It may be possible if the gravity extension was not caused by a failure of the landing gear mechanism.
c) No, only maintenance can restore normal operation.
d) None of the above is correct.

22. 422. If the accumulator on the alternate brake system is your only pressure source, which of the following will be available?

a) Auto brakes and anti-skid.
b) Anti-skid.
c) Seven applications of the brake pedals.
d) 3 applications of the brake pedals.

23. 423. On the ECAM WHEEL page, which of the following will NOT be displayed?

a) Brake system pressure.
b) Brake accumulator pressure.
c) None of the above is correct.

24. 424. Auto brakes, if selected, will only be activated by:

a) The wheels spinning up.
b) The struts being compressed.
c) The brake pedals being depressed.
d) The ground spoiler extension command

25. 425. The normal brake system uses .......... hydraulic pressure and the alternate brake system uses ............ hydraulic pressure backed up by the hydraulic brake accumulator.

a) Green, blue.
b) Yellow, blue.
c) Yellow, green.
d) Green, yellow.

26. 426. If the brake system automatically transitions to alternate brakes with the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch in the ON position, which of the following will be available?

a) Auto brakes and anti-skid.
b) Only auto brakes.
c) Anti-skid.
d) Brakes, auto brakes, anti-skid.

27. 427. Landing gear operation is inhibited at speeds:

a) Below 100 knots.
b) Above 260 +/- 5 knots.
c) Below 100 knots and above 260 knots.
d) Above 300 knots.

28. 428. How can the brake accumulator be re-pressurized?

a) With the yellow electric hydraulic pump.
b) With the blue electric hydraulic pump.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

29. 429. If the Landing Gear is gravity extended using the hand crank on the center pedestal, whatother systems will be inoperative?

a) Nose wheel steering.
b) Anti-skid and auto braking.
c) Nose wheel steering and anti-skid.
d) Nose wheel steering and auto braking.

30. 430. What is required to arm the auto brakes?

a) Green hydraulic pressure available, anti-skid, no failures in the braking system.
b) Landing gear lever selected down and selection of an autobraking rate.
c) Both a and b are required.
d) None of the above is correct.

31. 431. Which hydraulic system supplies pressure to the nose wheel steering on recent A321?

a) Yellow
b) Blue
c) Green
d) Green and yellow.

32. 432. What system pressure does the ACCU PRESS and BRAKES pressure indicator indicate?

a) Brake accumulator and yellow brake system pressure to the left and right brakes.
b) Brake accumulator and green brake system pressure to the left and right brakes.
c) Brake accumulator and green or yellow brake system pressure to the left and right brakes.
d) Blue brake accumulator and green brake system pressure to the left and right brakes.

33. 433. SRS will command:

a) V2 + 10 with both engines operating.
b) V2 or current aircraft speed (whichever is higher) in the case of an engine failure.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) Best rate of climb speed.

34. 434. When is the SRS active?

a) At T/O, when TOGA or FLX power is set, SRS is displayed on the FMA and provides guidance up to the acceleration altitude.
b) During a Go Around (after the thrust levers are placed in the TOGA position) up to the acceleration altitude.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

35. 435. Will the aircraft capture and navigate via the ILS signals if the ILS push button on the FCU is not pushed?

a) Yes.
b) No.

36. 436. What does pushing the APPR push button do?

a) Arms the Flight Guidance system to capture a localizer and glide slope.
b) Arms managed navigation.
c) Allows the aircraft to slow to green dot speed.
d) Arms managed vertical navigation.

37. 437. You have been cleared for an ILS approach. Would you depress …:

a) LOC push button, because the FMGC will now capture and navigate via the localizer and glide slope signal.
b) APPR push button, because the FMGC will now capture and navigate via the localizer and glide slope signal.
c) Both LOC and APPR push buttons, because both are needed for the aircraft to capture the localizer and glide slope.
d) ILS push button, because the FMGC will now capture and navigate via the localizer and glide slope signal.

38. 438. The selected database date has expired. When must the active data base be changed?

a) Prior to entering the preflight data.
b) Any time prior to takeoff.
c) The following calendar day.
d) At 0900Z on the effective date, but not in flight.

39. 439. An amber boxed line on the MCDU screen indicates:

a) An optional data entry.
b) A mandatory data entry.
c) A compulsory reporting point.
d) The waypoint indicated will be overflown.

40. 440. V1 speed is:

a) Entered by the pilot.
b) Calculated by the FMGC.
c) Calculated by the FAC.
d) Calculated by the ELAC.

41. 441. The FMGS database contains:

a) Navigation information, such as navaids, waypoints, airways, airports, runways, etc.
b) Performance information, such as engine fuel flow, engine thrust, green dot data (L/D data), etc.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

42. 442. How does the FMGC compute radio position?

a) IRS only.
b) IRS and VOR/DME.
c) IRS, DME/DME.
d) VOR/DME and DME/DME.

43. 443. Which of the following navaids can be autotuned?

a) ILS.
b) VOR and DME.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

44. 444. What is the default managed climb speed below 10,000 feet?

a) 210 kt
b) Green dot.
c) Best rate of climb speed.
d) 250 knots

45. 445. When flying at cruise altitude, the aircraft navigates using radio navaids only.

a) True.
b) False.

46. 446. The weather radar image can be displayed on which modes of the ND?

a) All modes except Plan.
b) Rose VOR or Rose ILS.
c) Rose NAV or ARC.
d) Rose NAV or VOR.

47. 447. Can the crew depress the NAV pushbutton on the RMP and use the RMP for navigation simultaneously with FMGC autotuning?

a) No, RMP backup tuning supersedes the autotuning function of both FMGC'S.
b) Yes, because the opposite FMGC will continue to autotune navaids.
c) No, the RMP autotunes only approach navaids.
d) None of the above is correct.

48. 448. The takeoff bias is:

a) Retained for the remainder of the flight.
b) Replaced when a bias is computed based on radio position.
c) Blended out over the next 30 minutes.
d) None of the above is correct.

49. 449. What is managed climb speed above 10,000 feet?

a) Green dot.
b) 250 knots.
c) 280 knots.
d) Econ climb speed.

50. 450. When the aircraft is in the Managed Guidance mode, it is:

a) Guided by the pilot selecting the specific flight modes and parameter target values on the FCU.
b) Responding to pilot inputs of speed, altitude, and heading selected on the FCU.
c) Following lateral, vertical and speed profiles as determined by the IRS’s.
d) Following lateral, vertical and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS.

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