351_400_CAAV_ATPL_QUESTION_BANK

351_400_CAAV_ATPL_QUESTION_BANK

1. 351. After an APU fire has been detected how long will the chime continue to sound?

a) Until the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN push button.
b) Until the crew pushes and releases the guarded red APU PIRE push button.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

2. 352. If an engine fire is detected, when will the guarded red ENG PIRE push button lightextinguish?

a) Only after the fire warning no longer exists.
b) When the crew pushes and releases the guarded red ENGINE FIRE push button.
c) When the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN push button.
d) None of the above is correct.

3. 353. Which of the following have automatic fire extinguishing systems?

a) APU and lavatory waste bins.
b) APU, lavatory waste bins and avionics bay.
c) APU, aft cargo, forward cargo, lavatory waste bins and avionics bay.
d) Lavatory waste bins.

4. 354. Illumination of the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light indicates:

a) A satisfactory test of the avionics compartment smoke detection control unit.
b) Smoke has been detected in the avionics compartment ventilation duct.
c) A fire has been detected in the avionics compartment.
d) A fire has been detected in the electronics compartment.

5. 355. What systems are affected when the guarded red ENGINE PIRE push button is pushed and released?

a) The master warning and the chime will be cancelled and the AGENT pb's will be armed.
b) All fluids, pneumatics and electrics relating to that engine are shut off.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

6. 356. In normal law, the low speed limits are depicted on each PFD as:

a) Alpha prot and alpha max.
b) Green x's.
c) Green ='s.
d) White dots.

7. 357. Selection of flaps 1 in flight will select which of the following configurations?

a) Slats 1 and flaps 1 (1+F).
b) Slats 0 and flaps 1 (O+F).
c) Slats 1 and flaps 0 (1).
d) Slats 1 and flaps 5 (1+F).

8. 358. Aileron droop may best be confirmed by checking which of the following?

a) The position of the ailerons on the exterior preflight inspection.
b) The lower ECAM FLT/CTL page.
c) The position of the flap handle.
d) Both b and c are correct.

9. 359. In normal law, MMO and VMO limits are depicted on each PFD as:

a) Green ='s
b) Green x's.
c) White dots.
d) None of the above is correct.

10. 360. The wing tip brakes, once activated:

a) Can only be reset on the ground by ground personnel.
b) May be reset in flight.
c) Lock the flap selector handle in its current position.
d) None of the above is correct.

11. 361. The wing tip brakes activate:

a) For slat and or flap overspeed, asymmetry, or symmetrical runaway.
b) For asymmetry, or symmetrical runaway.
c) For high altitude protection.
d) For low altitude protection.

12. 362. Failure to retract the flaps after takeoff will:

a) Activate the wing tip brakes.
b) Result in automatic flap and slat retraction at 210 kts.
c) Result in automatic flap and slat retraction at 220 kts.
d) Result in automatic flap retraction at 210 kts.

13. 363. Which of the following will automatically reset after landing?

a) Rudder trim.
b) THS.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

14. 364. Which of the following control surfaces can be mechanically controlled?

a) Speed brakes and flaps.
b) THS and flaps.
c) THS and rudder.
d) Rudder and flaps.

15. 365. The FAC's primarily control which control surface?

a) Elevator.
b) Rudder.
c) Aileron.
d) Elevator and aileron.

16. 366. The alpha speed lock function:

a) Will inhibit flap retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high AOA or low speeds.
b) Will inhibit slat retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high AOA or low speeds.
c) Automatically raises the flaps if retraction has not been accomplished by 210kts.
d) None of the above is correct.

17. 367. When ground spoilers deploy automatically:

a) All ten spoiler panels fully deploy.
b) Four spoiler panels on each wing deploy.
c) All ten spoiler panels deploy half way.
d) Six spoiler panels on each wing deploy.

18. 368. What happens in the event of an single ELAC failure?

a) ELAC functions are transferred the SECs.
b) ELAC functions are transferred to FACs.
c) SEC functions are transferred the ELACs.
d) The functions of the failed ELAC will be assumed by the remaining ELAC.

19. 369. The wing tip brakes, once activated:

a) Lock only the flaps in their current position.
b) Lock both the slats and flaps in their current position.
c) Lock only the slats in their current position.
d) Lock only the affected high lift system surfaces in their current position

20. 370. Mechanically backed-up control surfaces:

a) Are mechanically connected to the cockpit controls (controls & surface move identically).
b) Require hydraulic power for actuation.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

21. 371. The aircraft rudder can be manually trimmed with the autopilot engaged.

a) True.
b) False.

22. 372. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the elevator aileron computers (ELACs)?

a) Three computers which achieve normal elevator, stabilizer, and aileron control.
b) Two computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators, ailerons, and trimmable horizontal stabilizer.
c) Three computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators, ailerons, and THS.
d) Two computers which achieve normal elevator, stabilizer, and aileron control.

23. 373. Which of the following controls and monitors flaps and slats?

a) Two ELACs.
b) Wing tip brakes.
c) One slat flap control computer (SFCC).
d) Two slat flap control computers (SFCCs).

24. 374. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the spoiler elevator computers (SECs)?

a) Two computers which achieve spoiler control and standby elevator and THS control.
b) Three computers which achieve spoiler control and normal elevator and THS control.
c) Three computers which achieve spoiler control and standby elevator and THS control.
d) None of the above is correct.

25. 375. If both FACs fail, what happens to the rudder limiter?

a) It immediately assumes the low speed position.
b) It freezes at its present position and assumes the low speed position when flaps 1 are selected.
c) Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after slats extended.
d) Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after flaps extended.

26. 376. FAC generated slat and flap extension, retraction, and limiting speeds are visually displayed on which of the following?

a) The MCDU perf page.
b) The lower ECAM F/CTL page.
c) Both pilot's PFD airspeed displays.
d) All of the above is correct.

27. 377. The wing fuel transfer valves are:

a) Manually controlled and open when the MODE SEL push button is selected to MAN.
b) Are electrically held closed.
c) Open automatically at the start of refueling.
d) Automatically close if a low level is sensed in either main wing tank, they automatically close at the next fueling.

28. 378. The APU fuel system:

a) Obtains fuel from either center tank pump.
b) Uses its own dedicated DC powered fuel pump.
c) Obtains fuel from the left fuel manifold via the left side fuel pumps or if needed, the APU fuel pump.
d) Obtains fuel from the left fuel manifold via the right side fuel pumps.

29. 379. Fuel can be transferred from tank to tank:

a) Only on the ground.
b) In flight if the fuel X FEED push button is selected OPEN.
c) In flight if the fuel X FEED push button is selected OPEN and center tank MODE SEL push button is selected to MAN.
d) Fuel can never be transferred.

30. 380. What is the total fuel capacity of the A321?

a) 18,605 kgs.
b) All are correct.
c) 20,953 kgs with 1 ACT.
d) 23,302 kgs with 2 ACTs.

31. 381. What is the minimum fuel quantity for takeoff?

a) 1,320 kgs.
b) 1,500 kgs.
c) 2,350 kgs.

32. 382. With fuel in the center tank the CTR TK MODE SEL push button selected to AUTO and CTR TK PUMP push buttons ON (lights out), which of the following conditions causes the center tank fuel pumps to stop?

a) Extension of the slats (after completion of the short test cycle).
b) Anytime the slats are extended or an overfill condition is detected in either wing inner cell.
c) For a short test period after the first Engine Master Switch is selected ON, when the slats are extended.
d) None of the above.

33. 383. Which of the following would cause the fault light to illuminate on the MODE SEL push button?

a) Fuel is being burned out of sequence.
b) Crossfeed push button is ON.
c) Center tank pumps do not stop after slat extension.
d) Center tank pumps do not stop 5 min after center tank low level reached

34. 384. For hydraulic system malfunctions, when will the RAT deploy?

a) Automatically with the failure of both the green and blue hydraulic systems.
b) Automatically with the failure of both the green and yellow hydraulic systems.
c) Only when the guarded RAT MAN ON push button is selected by the crew.
d) When airspeed drops below 100 knots with the gear up.

35. 385. Describe the PTU status with a green system reservoir overheat, low pressure or low fluid level.

a) The PTU will be inhibited.
b) The crew must select the PTU ON.
c) The PTU fault light will remain illuminated as long as the problem exists. The PTU should be selected OFF.
d) None of the above.

36. 386. What are the major equipment losses with loss of Green system?

a) Speed Brakes.
b) Autobrakes.
c) Alternate Brakes.
d) The upper and lower rudders.

37. 387. When will normal operation of the BLUE system hydraulic pump begin?

a) During the first engine start.
b) When the first engine MASTER switch is moved to the ON position.
c) Only when the RAT is deployed.
d) After both engines are started.

38. 388. What does a HYD PUMP FAULT light indicate? 1. Reservoir low level 2. Reservoir overheat 3. Reservoir low air pressure 4. Pump low pressure 5. PTU is operating. The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:

a) 1,3,5
b) 5 only
c) 1,3,4
d) 1,2,3,4

39. 389. The A321's three hydraulic systems are normally pressurized by:

a) Two engine driven pumps and one electric pump.
b) Two electric pumps and one PTU.
c) Two electric pumps and one engine driven pump.
d) Two electric pumps and two engine driven pumps.

40. 390. How is the yellow hydraulic system pressurized?

a) An engine driven pump, an electric pump, the PTU using the green system and, for the cargo doors only, a hand pump.
b) An engine driven pump, electric pump, the PTU using the blue system and, for the cargo doors only, a hand pump.
c) An engine driven pump, an electric pump, and the PTU using the green system.
d) None of the above is correct.

41. 391. After extending the RAT, is it possible to check its position and status?

a) Check to see if the blue system ELEC PUMP FAULT light is not illuminated.
b) Yes, select the ECAM ELEC page.
c) No.
d) Yes, select the ECAM HYD page.

42. 392. The RAT is capable of powering a pump which will pressurize:

a) Only the blue system.
b) The blue and green system.
c) The blue and yellow system.
d) All systems.

43. 393. The hydraulic PTU will activate if:

a) A significant pressure loss occurs in any of the three hydraulic systems.
b) A significant pressure loss occurs in the green or yellow hydraulic system.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

44. 394. Can the wing anti-ice be tested on the ground?

a) No.
b) Yes, valves only open for 30 seconds.
c) Yes, valves stay open till selected off.

45. 395. What is the difference between the engine and wing anti-ice fault lights?

a) Both indicate valve in transit, or valve position disagrees with selected position. Wing light also could indicate low pressure.
b) Both indicate low pressure, or valve position disagrees with selected position. Wing light might indicate valve in transit.
c) Both indicate valve in transit, or low pressure. Wing light also could indicate valve position disagrees with selected position.
d) None of the above is correct.

46. 396. With the loss of electrical power, the engine anti-ice valves:

a) Fail in their current position.
b) Fail to the open position.
c) Fail to the closed position.
d) Fail to the mid position

47. 397. Window heat operates at what power level while airborne?

a) Low power above 18,000 ft.
b) Normal power while airborne.
c) Shifts from low to high as window temperature requires.
d) Low power above 25,000 ft.

48. 398. With the loss of electrical power, the wing anti-ice valves:

a) Fail in their current position.
b) Fail to the open position.
c) Fail to the closed position.
d) Fail to the mid position.

49. 399. What happens when either engine anti-ice is open?

a) Minimum N1 is limited, continuous ignition is provided, minimum idle RPM is increased.
b) Maximum N1 is limited, continuous ignition is provided, maximum idle RPM is increased.
c) Maximum N1 is limited, continuous ignition is provided, minimum RPM is increased.
d) Pneumatics blowing across all flight deck windows.

50. 400. Rain protection is provided by:

a) Warm bleed air blowing across the windshield.
b) Rain repellent and windshield wipers.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

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