301_350_CAAV_ATPL_QUESTION_BANK

301_350_CAAV_ATPL_QUESTION_BANK

1. 301. Which ACP transmission key will illuminate if the flight attendants are calling?

a) PA
b) CAB
c) VHF3
d) ALERT

2. 302. The VHF 3 transmission key illuminated amber showing the word “CALL” indicates:

a) An ACARS message is waiting.
b) A SELCALL
c) The lead flight attendant is calling
d) ATC is calling

3. 303. To make a PA announcement, …

a) Depress and hold the PA transmission key push button.
b) Use the pedestal mounted handset.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

4. 304. When the aircraft is in the Emergency Electrical Configuration, ...

a) RMP's 1 and 2, and ACP's 1 and 2 are both operative.
b) RMP 1 and ACP's 1 and 2 are operative.
c) RMP 1 and ACP 1 are operative.
d) RMP 2 and ACP's 1 and 2 are operative.

5. 305. The AUDIO SWITCHING rotary selector allows replacement of a failed #1 or #2 ACP with ACP #3.

a) True.
b) False.

6. 306. If RMP navigation tuning is currently in use for VOR tuning and ATC assigns a new communication frequency, what must be done?

a) The NAV key must be deselected.
b) Tune the new frequency on the offside RMP
c) Select the appropriate VHF communication radio transmission key, tune using the rotary selector, press the transfer key.
d) None of the above is correct.

7. 307. While operating on Emergency Electrical Power with the landing gear lowered which of the following control laws is in effect?

a) Backup.
b) Direct.
c) Alternate.
d) None of the above is correct.

8. 308. Can you reconnect an IDG in flight?

a) Yes, but only after contacting maintenance control.
b) Yes, push and hold the IDG pb until the GEN fault light is no longer illuminated.
c) No.
d) None of the above is correct.

9. 309. Engine #1 has just been started and the APU is inoperative. The EXT PWR push button blue ON light is illuminated. Which of the statements below is correct?

a) External power is supplying all electrical needs.
b) Engine Gen #1 is supplying AC bus #1 and the downstream systems, and AC bus #2 through the bus tie contactors.
c) Gen #1 supplies AC bus #1 and (generally) the downstream systems; Ext power supplies AC bus #2.
d) None of the above is correct.

10. 310. What is the function of the GEN 1 LINE push button?

a) When selected OFF the avionics compartment isolation valves close.
b) When selected OFF the #1 generator powers all AC busses.
c) When selected OFF generator # 1 is removed from all busses but continues to power one fuel pump in each wing.
d) None of the above is correct.

11. 311. If the source of power for the ESS AC bus is lost, does another source of power automatically power the bus?

a) Yes, transfer is automatic.
b) Yes, only if AUTO was selected on the AC ESS FEED push button.
c) No, this must be done by the crew.
d) None of the above is correct.

12. 312. Which flight control computers are operational in the Emergency Electrical Power configuration (gear down and batteries powering the system)?

a) All are operational.
b) ELAC 1, SEC 1 and FAC 1.
c) ELAC 1 and 2, SEC 1 and 2, FAC 1.
d) ELAC 1 and SEC 1.

13. 313. While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN powering the system, FAC #1 reset) which of the following control laws are in effect?

a) Alternate.
b) Manual
c) Backup.
d) Both b and c are correct.

14. 314. Which communication and navigation radios are operational in the Emergency Electrical Configuration with the EMER GEN powering the system?

a) VHF1, RMP1, VOR1.
b) ACP1and2, VHF1, HF, RMP1, VOR1 and ILS1.
c) RMP #1 & #2, VHF #1, HF (if equipped), ACP #1, VOR #l and ILS #1.
d) All radios are lost.

15. 315. While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN powering the system) how isit possible to properly complete the ECAM checklist with only an upper display?

a) Depress and hold the specific ECAM page push button on the ECAM control panel.
b) Transfer occurs automatically.
c) This is not possible. Use the cockpit operating manual.
d) None of the above is correct.

16. 316. While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN powering the system) what should the crew accomplish prior to lowering the landing gear?

a) Check to see that the FMGC has auto tuned the appropriate NAV facility for the approach to be accomplished.
b) Depress the guarded RMP NAV push button and tune the appropriate NAV facility and course for the approach to be accomplished.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

17. 317. Are there any limitations associated with disconnecting an IDG?

a) No.
b) Never disconnect an IDG in flight, or push the IDG disconnect push button for more than 30 seconds.
c) Never disconnect an IDG in flight, or push the IDG disconnect push button for more than 5 seconds.
d) Never disconnect an IDG unless the engine is running, nor push the IDG disconnect push button for more than 3 seconds.

18. 318. What is the function of APU GEN push button located on the overhead electrical panel?

a) Push this button to automatically start the APU.
b) When selected to OFF the APU generator field is de-energized.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

19. 319. If both engine generators are powering the system, and one subsequently fails, are any busses unpowered?

a) No, but some loads are shed in both main galleys.
b) Only the AC ESS shed bus.
c) Yes, those associated with the failed generator.
d) None of the above is correct.

20. 320. What cockpit lighting is available during an emergency electrical situation?

a) Emergency path lighting only.
b) Right side dome light, main panel flood lights (left two columns only), and the standby compass light.
c) Right side dome light, main panel flood lights, and the standby compass.
d) Located on normal circuit breaker panels.

21. 321. Is it possible to determine the source of power for aircraft busses?

a) It is indicated on the electrical schematic overhead.
b) No.
c) Only when operating in the Emergency Electrical Configuration.
d) Yes, press the ECAM ELEC push button and view the electrical schematic on the ECAM.

22. 322. What is the significance of the green collared circuit breakers?

a) Green collared circuit breakers are monitored by the ECAM.
b) Green collared circuit breakers are pulled when flying on battery power only.
c) Green collared circuit breakers are not to be reset.
d) None of the above is correct.

23. 323. While operating on Emergency Electrical Power with the landing gear lowered which of the following statements is correct?

a) If the APU is not operating, it should be started at this time.
b) The APU will not start until the aircraft has come to a complete stop and all power has been removed for 15 seconds.
c) On the ground at 100 knots, the DC BATTERY BUS automatically reconnects to the batteries.
d) At 70 knots, ESS AC is disconnected from the batteries.

24. 324. With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, which situation will activate the emergency lights and exit signs?

a) AC bus #1 unpowered
b) AC SHED bus unpowered
c) DC ESS SHED bus unpowered
d) All of the above is correct.

25. 325. If during a normal flight the BUS TIE push button is depressed to 'OFF', what effect would this have on power to the busses?

a) The power transfer would switch to the opposite bus.
b) All power would be lost and the aircraft would be powered by the batteries until the RAT was up to speed.
c) None.
d) This is not possible as the bus tie contactors are locked out during flight.

26. 326. The RAT is connected directly (mechanically) to the Emergency Generator.

a) False
b) True

27. 327. If EXTERNAL power is available and within limits:

a) It will automatically close the bus tie contactors when connected by the ground crew.
b) The green AVAIL light will illuminate on the EXT PWR push button.
c) The BUS TIE push button illuminates.
d) None of the above is correct.

28. 328. Which busses will be powered after the RAT is extended and the EMER GEN begins producing power?

a) BATT HOT busses, ESS DC, ESS DC SHED, ESS AC and ESS AC SHED.
b) The BATTERIES would power both HOT BATT busses, ESS DC and ESS AC through the STATIC INVERTER.
c) The STATIC INVERTER would power both HOT BATT busses, ESS DC and ESS AC through the ESS AC SHED busses.
d) ESS DC, ESS DC SHED, ESS AC and ESS AC SHED.

29. 329. A battery fault light will illuminate when:

a) Battery charging current increases at an abnormal rate.
b) Battery voltage drops below a predetermined level.
c) The batteries have auto disconnected due to low voltage.
d) None of the above is correct

30. 330. What is the priority of electrical sources?

a) External power, Gen #1 and #2, APU.
b) APU, External power (if selected), Gen #1 and #2.
c) APU, Gen #2 or #1, External power (if selected).
d) Gen #1 or #2, External power (if selected), APU.

31. 331. Which flight control computer will be inoperative with gear extension while in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?

a) SEC 1
b) FAC 1
c) ELAC 1
d) FAC 1 and ELAC 1.

32. 332. If batteries are the only source of power in flight, how long will battery power be available?

a) Between 22 and 30 minutes depending on equipment in use.
b) Until the APU is started.
c) Two hours and 30 minutes dependent on equipment in use.
d) 45 minutes dependent on equipment in use.

33. 333. Which condition will automatically illuminate the escape lights?

a) DC ESS SHED bus not powered.
b) AC ESS SHED bus not powered.
c) Loss of power to the AC bus 1.
d) DC ESS BUS not powered.

34. 334. During a routine flight, which of the following would result after the loss of Gen #2 and the subsequent start of the APU?

a) All systems return to normal and the RAT must be restored.
b) The APU would now power both sides of the electrical system.
c) Eng gen #1 continues to power AC bus #1 and downstream systems. The APU powers AC bus #2 and downstream systems.
d) None of the above is correct.

35. 335. How many fire extinguishing bottles are available for fighting an APU fire?

a) One.
b) Two.
c) One cylinder shared with the aft cargo compartment.
d) Two cylinders shared with the aft cargo compartment.

36. 336. What is indicated by a missing red APU thermal plug during an exterior preflight?

a) This is normal indication, the red APU thermal plug only appears if the APU halon cylinder is low.
b) An APU fire agent thermal discharge has occurred.
c) An external fire discharge has been activated.
d) An engine fire agent thermal discharge has occurred.

37. 337. Which of the following are monitored for protection against fire or smoke?

a) Engines, APU, aft cargo, lavatories and avionics bay.
b) Engines, APU, aft cargo, forward cargo, lavatories and avionics bay.
c) Engines, APU, aft cargo, wheel wells, forward cargo, lavatories and avionics bay.
d) Engines, APU, aft cargo, forward cargo, and avionics bay.

38. 338. APU fire detection is accomplished by:

a) A two channel SDCU located in the APU compartment.
b) Two parallel fire detection loops.
c) One fire detection loop.
d) A three channel SDCU located in the APU compartment.

39. 339. In the event an aft cargo compartment smoke detector detects smoke:

a) Only an ECAM message will be generated.
b) Only a MASTER WARN and a CRC will be generated.
c) A MASTER WARN, CRC and an ECAM message will be generated.
d) A CRC and an ECAM message will be generated.

40. 340. Each engine nacelle and pylon area is equipped with:

a) Two fire detection loops.
b) Two smoke detectors and two fire detection loops.
c) A single fire detection loop.
d) A single fire detection loop and a single smoke detector.

41. 341. The avionics smoke detection system consists of the following:

a) A smoke detector, smoke detection control unit and one halon cylinder.
b) A smoke detector and smoke detection control unit.
c) A smoke detector, heat detector, smoke detection control unit and one halon cylinder.
d) A smoke detector, smoke detection control unit and two halon cylinders.

42. 342. The aft cargo compartment smoke detection system consists of:

a) A dual loop smoke detector.
b) Four smoke detectors and a two channel smoke detection control unit.
c) One smoke detector, one smoke detection control unit and two automatically discharging fire extinguishers.
d) None of the above is correct.

43. 343. How does the APU fire test on battery power differ from the APU fire test with all busses powered?

a) There is no difference.
b) While on battery power, only the red APU FIRE and AGENT/DISC push button will illuminate.
c) It is not possible to test the APU fire protection while on battery power.
d) None of the above is correct.

44. 344. If an engine fire is detected, when will the pedestal mounted red FIRE annunciator light extinguish?

a) When the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN push button.
b) Only after the fire warning no longer exists.
c) Only after the crew selects the adjacent ENG MASTER switch to off.
d) None of the above is correct.

45. 345. Are there any warnings to alert ground personnel when there is a fire in the APU compartment?

a) Yes, but only if previously selected to automatic by the ground personnel.
b) No, APU fire indications are only present in the cockpit.
c) Yes, the flames.
d) Yes, the external fire warning horn will sound and the APU red fire light will illuminate.

46. 346. The APU provides for automatic fire extinguishing:

a) On the ground and in flight.
b) On the ground.
c) Only when selected to automatic by ground personnel.
d) None of the above is correct.

47. 347. You have detected avionics smoke. You have selected the GEN 1 LINE push button off andthe RAT has been deployed. Generator 2 has been removed from the system. Which of the following is TRUE?

a) The avionics fire bottle automatically discharges.
b) The cargo fire bottle automatically fires.
c) The aircraft will be in the Emergency Electrical Configuration.
d) None of the above is correct.

48. 348. In addition to the CRC and red MASTER WARN light, a good engine fire test display which of the following (AC power available)?

a) E/WD red 1 (2) ENG FIRE warning, lower ECAM engine page, red FIRE annunciator, red ENG FIRE push button, and AGENT SQUIB/DISC.
b) Lower ECAM engine page, pedestal mounted red FIRE annunciator, red ENG FIRE push button and the AGENT SQUIB/DISC lights illuminate.
c) The CRC and red MASTER WARN light indicate a good engine fire test.
d) All of the above are correct.

49. 349. In conjunction with illumination of the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light and MASTER CAUT light:

a) The BLOWER and EXTRACT push button FAULT lights will be illuminated.
b) Only the BLOWER FAULT light will be illuminated.
c) Only the EXTRACT FAULT light will be illuminated.
d) Both a and c are correct.

50. 350. In the event an aft cargo compartment smoke detector detects smoke:

a) Extinguishing is automatic.
b) Extinguishing is automatic only while on the ground.
c) The crew must depress the appropriate DISCH switch.
d) None of the above is correct.

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