251_300

1. 251. How many temperature selectors are there on the A321? How many temperature zones are there?

a) Three rotary temperature selectors and one zone.
b) Three rotary temperature selectors, one each for the cockpit zone, the forward cabin zone, and the aft cabin zone.
c) Two rotary temperature selectors, one for the cockpit and first class zone and one for the aft cabin zone.
d) Four rotary temperature selectors and four zones.

2. 252. How many pressurization controllers are installed on the A321?

a) Three: two automatic, and one manual controller.
b) Two: one automatic and one manual.
c) Two independent controllers. They both operate in the automatic mode.
d) One controller with AC and DC motor backups.

3. 253. Placing the avionics ventilation system in the smoke configuration:

a) Opens the #1 GLC.
b) Opens the cargo under-floor valve.
c) De-energizes the blower fan, extract fan runs, opens the air conditioning extract valves.
d) Opens the #2 GLC.

4. 254. Aft cargo indications may be found on which ECAM page(s)?

a) Only the ECAM cruise page.
b) Only the CAB PRESS page.
c) The ECAM cruise page and the COND page.
d) Only the BLEED page.

5. 255. What are the different sources of air for air conditioning and pressurization?

a) Engine bleed air.
b) Engine bleed air and recirculated air.
c) Engine bleed air and recirculated air, or if selected, APU bleed air and recirculated air.
d) None of the above is correct.

6. 256. Engine flow demand, when the heating or cooling demand in one zone cannot be satisfied:

a) The minimum idle must be increased manually.
b) In any case, flight idle is sufficient.
c) The minimum idle is increased automatically.
d) The APU must be used to supply additional air.

7. 257. Which statement is correct regarding illumination of the amber AFT ISOL VALVE fault light?

a) Automatically closes the aft cargo compartment isolation valves.
b) Means that either the inlet or outlet isolation valve(s) disagrees with the switch position.
c) Indicates that the extract fan has stopped.
d) All of the above are correct.

8. 258. When would you select ECON FLOW ON?

a) If number of passengers is below 140.
b) When passengers are complaining it is too cold.
c) Below FL 350.
d) Below FL 391.

9. 259. How can you change pressurization controllers during flight?

a) Cycle the LDG ELEV AUTO knob out of the AUTO position then back to AUTO.
b) Cycle the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL pushbutton to the MAN position then back to AUTO.
c) Cycle the cabin pressurization MAN V/S CTL switch.
d) None of the above is correct.

10. 260. When does normal pressurization occur?

a) Pressurization occurs during the takeoff roll.
b) Pressurization occurs during taxi for takeoff.
c) After second engine start.
d) After rotation.

11. 261. Pressurization indications are found on which ECAM page(s)?

a) Only on the CAB PRESS page.
b) BLEED page.
c) The in-flight ECAM cruise page and the PRESS page.
d) 'Both a and b are correct

12. 262. During the exterior preflight on a warm day, in what position would you expect to find the avionics ventilation system INLET and EXTRACT valves to be in?

a) Open.
b) Intermediate.
c) Closed.
d) Fire.

13. 263. What computers control the cabin and cockpit conditioned air?

a) Two zone controllers that pass information and requests to two pack controllers.
b) Two pack controllers that pass information and requests to three zone controllers.
c) Three zone controllers that pass information and instructions to two pack controllers for three zones.
d) One zone controller that passes information and instructions to two pack controllers for three zones.

14. 264. When would you select RAM AIR ON?

a) Dual pack failure or smoke removal.
b) If additional cooling is required on the ground.
c) When pack temperatures are too high.
d) When there is smoke in the cabin.

15. 265. How many trim air valves are there?

a) One trim air valve.
b) Three: one each for the cockpit zone, the forward cabin zone, and the aft cabin zone.
c) Two: one for the cockpit and first class zone, and one for the cabin zone.
d) Four: one each for the cockpit zone, the first class zone, and two for the aft zone.

16. 266. What happens to the pack flow control valves during engine start?

a) They must be selected off.
b) They must be selected off on cold days only.
c) They must be selected off on hot days only.
d) They automatically close.

17. 267. How many Air Data/Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) are installed on the A321?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

18. 268. What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?

a) The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard.
b) The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be outboard.
c) The PFD should be to the left of the ND for both seat positions.
d) The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be inboard.

19. 269. Where is the information displayed by DMC #1 and DMC #2?

a) DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2, ND #2, and UPPER ECAM.
b) DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #2, ND #2 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #1, ND #1, and UPPER ECAM.
c) DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1, and UPPER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2, ND #2, and LOWER ECAM.
d) DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2, ND #2, and LOWER ECAM.

20. 270. If the LOWER ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?

a) Pressing and holding the related systems page pb on the ECAM control panel; the page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM.
b) Rotating the ECAM/ND XFER switch, the LOWER ECAM page will be transferred to either the Captain or First officers ND.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

21. 271. In normal law all protections are active, which of the following lists is the most complete list?

a) Protections; Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, Alpha floor, angle of bank, and High speed.
b) Protections; Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, and High speed.
c) Protections; Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, Vls, Alpha floor, and High speed.
d) Protections; Load Factor.

22. 272. The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?

a) Alignment has been completed.
b) The respective IR is operating normally.
c) Air data output has been disconnected.
d) None of the above is correct.

23. 273. An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

a) Present position needs to be reentered.
b) Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.
c) A complete failure of the respective IR has occurred.
d) None of the above is correct.

24. 274. How long does a normal IR alignment take?

a) Approximately 4 minutes.
b) Approximately 3 minutes.
c) Approximately 15 minutes.
d) Approximately 10 minutes.

25. 275. If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

a) IR information will be disconnected.
b) ADR information will be disconnected.
c) ADR and IR information will be disconnected.
d) The ADIRU is not energized; ADR and IR information is lost.

26. 276. High and low speed stabilities may be available in alternate law, stabilities:

a) Will not allow the pilot to stall the aircraft.
b) Prohibit steep bank angles.
c) Can be overridden by the pilot, and it is possible to exceed VMO, MMO and stall the aircraft.
d) Prohibit steep climb angles.

27. 277. The DDRMI provides the pilot with:

a) Bearing and DME information for VOR 1 and ADF 1.
b) Bearing and DME information for VOR 2 and ADF 2.
c) Bearing only for VOR 1 and VOR 2.
d) None of the above is correct.

28. 278. In normal law, MMO and VMO limits depicted on each pilot’s PFD:

a) Are displayed as green x's.
b) Are displayed as green ='s.
c) Are never displayed and must be memorized by each A321 pilot.
d) None of the above is correct.

29. 279. Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?

a) Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.
b) Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Direct law.
c) Extending the landing gear will have no effect on the status of the flight controls.
d) None of the above is correct.

30. 280. While in flight operating in Normal law, movement of the sidestick and subsequent return to neutral will command:

a) Control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, then return the aircraft to straight and level flight.
b) The control surfaces to continue rolling the aircraft until reaching 55 degrees roll angle.
c) Control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, disconnect auto trim, and maintain its current attitude.
d) A load factor proportional to stick deflection, then maintain one G flight corrected for pitch attitude.

31. 281. The ON BAT light will illuminate amber:

a) When one or more IR's are operating on aircraft battery power.
b) For a few seconds at the beginning of the alignment process.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) None of the above is correct.

32. 282. The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?

a) No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON.
b) In addition to answer a, an alignment fault may exist.
c) Attitude and heading information have been lost.
d) None of the above is correct.

33. 283. On an autoland approach, with both autopilots on, which FMGC is master?

a) FMGC 1
b) FMGC 2
c) Both

34. 284. In normal law, the low speed limits depicted on each pilot’s PFD:

a) Are displayed as green x's.
b) Are displayed as green ='s.
c) Are displayed as Alpha prot and Alpha max. These Limits vary with to GW, CG, altitude and other environmental factors.
d) Are displayed as green =o's.

35. 285. After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?

a) Once a DMC has failed the information is unrecoverable.
b) Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3.
c) No action is needed as recovery is automatic.
d) None of the above is correct.

36. 286. In normal law, pitch and roll attitude limits depicted on each pilot’s PFD:

a) Are displayed as green x's.
b) Are displayed as green ='s.
c) Are never displayed and must be memorized by each A321 pilot.
d) None of the above is correct.

37. 287. Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

a) The OFF light will illuminate and air data output will disconnect.
b) The respective ADIRU will become deenergized.
c) Both AD and IR information will be disconnected.
d) Both b and c are correct.

38. 288. Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

a) Pitch attitude.
b) ALPHA SPD (alpha speed)
c) Vls.
d) Alpha floor.

39. 289. Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?

a) Yes
b) No

40. 290. What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost:

a) Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3.
b) Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3.
c) Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/0 3.
d) Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/0 1.

41. 291. While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha prot range:

a) The flight controls revert to direct law.
b) The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick deflection is proportional to AOA.
c) The flight controls remain in the load factor demand law.
d) None of the above is correct.

42. 292. What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?

a) 1 inop, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 off.
b) 1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop

43. 293. What action should be taken if ADR #1 is lost?

a) Nothing.
b) Move the ATT HDG knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.
c) Move the AIR DATA knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.
d) None of the above is correct.

44. 294. If both ELACs fail, what controls the elevator and stabilizer?

a) SECS.
b) FACS.
c) Nothing, they revert to mechanical backup.
d) ELAC's

45. 295. What information is supplied by the IR's and displayed on the PFD?

a) Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.
b) Heading, altitude, and vertical speed
c) Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.
d) Heading, attitude, and altitude.

46. 296. What is the function of the FACs? 1. Rudder & Yaw Damping inputs. 2. Flight envelope & Speed computations. 3. Windshear protection.

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2, and 3

47. 297. What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?

a) No power.
b) DMC failure.
c) The circuit breaker for that particular DU has popped.
d) None of the above is correct.

48. 298. What does amber SPEED BRAKES mean on lower ECAM?

a) Speed brakes are extended and flap handle is not at 0.
b) Speed brakes have a fault.
c) Speed brakes are extended and engines are not at idle.
d) All of the above are correct.

49. 299. To communicate with a mechanic for manual start valve operation at the engine:

a) Select the transmission key push button labeled CAB and the audio selector labelled CAB.
b) Select the transmission key push button labelled INT and the INT audio selector.
c) Select the INT/RAD selector to INT, and INT audio selector on.
d) None of the above is correct.

50. 300. Normally how should you call a Flight Attendant?

a) Using the ACP CAB pb.
b) Using an overhead FWD or AFT call push button.
c) Selecting the ATTND ADV pb on.
d) Use the P.A. microphone.

This is more feedback!

This is the feedback!

feedback!

Back to Top