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201_250_CAAV_ATPL_QUESTION_BANK
1.
201. Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will: 1. remain on the runway, 2. clear the runway using the first available taxiway, 3. keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical power supply on, 4. turn off all systems. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1,4.
b) 2,3.
c) 1,3.
d) 2,4.
2.
202. The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:
a) An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board
b) A landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants
c) An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board or on the surface
d) A voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its occupants
3.
203. If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
a) Under flight level 50 (FL50).
b) In a holding stack, after control clearance.
c) In a straight line and at a relatively high flight level.
d) During final phase of approach.
4.
204. The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by :
a) The operator.
b) The captain.
c) The shipper.
d) The handling agent.
5.
205. In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set for the markings related to dangerous goods :
a) English
b) English, French or Spanish
c) French
d) Spanish
6.
206. The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the :
a) Aircraft's weight.
b) Strength of the headwind.
c) Depth of the standing water on the runway.
d) Amount of the lift off speed.
7.
207. In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain: 1. You increase your approach speed, 2. You land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose gear, 3. You decrease your approach speed, 4. You use systematically all the lift dumper devices, 5. You land as smoothly as possible, 6. You brake energetically. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 3, 5
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 4, 5, 6
8.
208. A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:
a) Contaminated.
b) Flooded.
c) Wet.
d) Damp.
9.
209. The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is :
a) 12 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 3 hours
10.
210. Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
a) 15 %
b) 20 %
c) 18 %
d) 17,6 %
11.
211. Crew members shall, on request of a law enforcement officer or the Authority, yield to a test to indicate the presence of alcohol or psychoactive substances in the blood at any time:
a) Up to 8 hours before acting as a crew member.
b) Immediately after attempting to act as a crew member.
c) Immediately after acting as a crew member.
d) All of the above are correct.
12.
212. Crew members must not commence a flight duty period with a blood alcohol level in excess of:
a) 0.05 grams per litre.
b) 0.15 grams per litre.
c) 0.2 grams per litre.
13.
213. A crew member should not donate blood within:
a) 48 hours before a flight assignment.
b) 36 hours before a flight assignment.
c) 24 hours before a flight assignment.
14.
214. An augmented flight crew is scheduled to carry out no more than:
a) 02 landings within a flight duty period.
b) 03 landings provided that the block time for one sector ? 03 hours and the rest period immediately following this flight duty period is increased by 06 hours.
c) Both a and b are correct.
15.
215. Blocktime calculation method for each duty augmented flight crew member:
a) Blocktime for each flight crew member = (Blocktime of a sector of flight x 2) / Number of duty flight crew member.
b) Blocktime is the period of time from “wheel chocks away” to “wheel chocks on”.
c) None is correct.
16.
216. The standard weight of crew, passengers and cargo for normal flights is as follows:
a) Flight crew: 75kgs, Cabin crew: 70kgs; Passengers: 90kgs; Children: 37kgs
b) Flight crew: 80kgs, Cabin crew: 70kgs; Passengers: 70kgs; Children: 30kgs
c) Flight crew: 90kgs, Cabin crew: 75kgs; Passengers: 75kgs; Children: 35kgs
17.
217. When the passenger checked baggage (loaded in the cargo compartment) is not weighed, the following standard weight per piece of checked baggage is used:
a) Domestic flights: 11kgs; International flights: 15kgs
b) Domestic flights: 15kgs; International flights: 25kgs
c) Domestic flights: 15kgs; International flights: 15kgs
18.
218. A pilot ------accept a clearance with which he cannot safely comply or which exceeds the capabilities of the aircraft. The commander is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft.
a) Must.
b) May co-operate and.
c) Must not.
19.
219. If a flight is cleared to hold, ATC holding instructions must be complied with. …
a) These instructions may be issued by the controller or they may be required on the charts.
b) These instructions may be issued by the controller only.
c) These instructions may be required on the charts only.
20.
220. If the time difference (TD) between the countries of origin and destination is 04 hours or more:
a) 04 hours ? TD ? 06 hours: the subsequent rest period is at least as long as the preceding flight duty period or 14 hours, whichever is greater.
b) TD > 06 hours: the subsequent rest period is at least as long as the preceding flight duty period or 16 hours, whichever is greater.
c) Both a and b are correct.
21.
221. A clearance must be read back to ATC and for a confirmation between both pilot crew members in the case of clearances received:
a) In areas of high terrain.
b) That include heading, flight level, frequency, route/waypoint changes.
c) That include instructions for holding short of a runway.
d) All of the above are correct.
22.
222. Which statement is correct?
a) When showing compliance with the take-off obstacle clearance: Track changes shall not be allowed up to the point at which the net take-off flight path has achieved a height equal to the full wingspan but not less than 35 ft above the elevation of the end of the take-off run available. Thereafter, up to a height of 400 ft it is assumed that the aircraft is banked by no more than 25°. Above 400 ft height bank angles greater than 15°, but not more than 25° may be scheduled.
b) When showing compliance with the take-off obstacle clearance: Track changes shall not be allowed up to the point at which the net take-off flight path has achieved a height equal to one half the wingspan but not less than 50 ft above the elevation of the end of the take-off run available. Thereafter, up to a height of 400 ft it is assumed that the aircraft is banked by no more than 15°. Above 400 ft height bank angles greater than 15°, but not more than 25° may be scheduled.
c) Both a and b are incorrect.
23.
223. For depressurization, it may be necessary to descend below the en-route minimum altitude determined for normal operation in order to cope with passenger oxygen requirements. At any time, the aircraft gross (actual) flight path must clear vertically all obstacles by:
a) 2,000 ft.
b) 1,500 ft.
c) 1,000 ft.
24.
224. Temperature correction: The calculated minimum safe altitudes/heights must be corrected when the OAT is much ----- than that predicted by the standard atmosphere.
a) Higher.
b) More.
c) Lower.
25.
225. Where no outer marker or equivalent position exists, the pilot in command shall make the
decision to continue or stop the approach before descending below --------------- on the final approach segment.
a) 1,500 AGL
b) MDA.
c) 1,000 feet above the airport.
26.
226. Final Reserve Fuel is the amount of fuel to fly:
a) For 30 minutes at holding speed at FL150 at last holding pattern of airport’s STAR in standard conditions, calculated at the estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate airport.
b) For 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 FT above airport elevation in standard conditions, calculated at the estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate airport.
c) For 30 minutes at holding speed at go-around altitude at the holding pattern of the approach in standard conditions, calculated at the estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate airport.
27.
227. For IFR planning purposes, a destination alternate is not required if the airport is isolated and no suitable alternate is available, but a -----------will be calculated and included in the flight plan remarks.
a) ETP.
b) CP.
c) Point-of-no-return
28.
228. ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet must show name and staff ID number of the person preparing the sheet. The Commander acknowledges his receipt of ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet via ACARS data link network, giving his ….
a) Full name.
b) ID number
c) Name and his position.
29.
229. Which statement is correct?
a) A pilot should make a visible record of each ATC clearance, and all route changes should be recorded on any paper adjacent to the waypoint where the clearance for route change was issued.
b) A pilot should make a visible record of each ATC clearance, and all route changes should be recorded on the flight plan log adjacent to the waypoint where the clearance for route change was issued.
30.
230. All flight crew members when on duty MUST bring:
a) Their licenses and medical certificates.
b) Their licenses only.
c) Their licenses, medical certificates and logbooks.
31.
231. A pilot shall not be assigned to operate an aeroplane as part of the minimum certified crew, either as pilot flying or pilot non-flying:
a) Unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings in the previous 120 days as pilot flying in an aircraft or an approved flight simulator;
b) Unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings in the previous 90 days as pilot flying in an aircraft or an approved flight simulator
c) Unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings in the previous 06 calendar months as pilot flying in an aircraft or an approved flight simulator.
32.
232. As a relief pilot, a first officer can operate on the left hand seat as PNF/PM only:
a) At take-off and landing.
b) From 20,000 feet and above.
c) At any time during the flight.
33.
233. The objective of CRM is to enhance:
a) The communication skills of the flight crew.
b) The management skills of the flight crew.
c) Both a and b are correct.
34.
234. Crew members should keep walking in line (single or double) when walking in the terminal or public areas in the following orders:
a) Double line: Captain - First officer, female cabin crew, male cabin crew
b) Single line: Captain, First officer, female Purser, female cabin crew and male cabin crew.
c) Single line: Female crew followed by male crew.
35.
235. Pressure correction: When flying at levels with the altimeter set to 1013hPa, the minimum safe altitude must be corrected for deviations in pressure when the pressure is -----------than the standard atmosphere (1013hPa).
a) Higher.
b) More.
c) Lower.
36.
236. Airport categories B and C are considered special airports and:
a) Special flight crew qualifications are required.
b) Special flight crew qualifications are required for airport category C only.
c) None of them requires special flight crew qualifications.
37.
237. Which statement is TRUE concerning the cargo compartment ventilation?
a) Both cargo compartments are pressurized and heated using both cabin air and hot trim air.
b) Recirculated air, conditioned air, and hot trim air are mixed then distributed to each cargo compartment.
c) Only the aft cargo compartment is heated and ventilated. Cabin ambient air is mixed with hot trim air and drawn through isolation valves by extraction fans.
d) None of the above.
38.
238. Placing the BLOWER push button to override:
a) Insures the blower fan will continue to run.
b) Places the avionics ventilation system in the open configuration.
c) De-energizes the blower fan.
d) Places the avionics ventilation system in the closed configuration.
39.
239. Pressurization is normally automatic on the A321. Can you interfere with it?
a) Yes, manually set landing elevation using the LND ELEV AUTO selector.
b) Yes, CABIN PRESS MODE SEL to OVERRIDE and MAN V/S CTL toggle switch.
c) Both a and b are correct.
d) No.
40.
240. Pressurization controllers receive inputs from:
a) LGCIU, ADIRU, FMGS, and EIU.
b) LGCIU's and the MCDU.
c) LGCIU's and pitot static sources.
d) MCDU and LGCIU'S.
41.
241. Which configuration is the avionics ventilation system in while airborne with no abnormals present?
a) Open.
b) Smoke.
c) Fire.
d) Closed.
42.
242. The Ram Air valve:
a) Will open automatically.
b) Should be opened for increased ventilation while on the ground.
c) Should be opened for increased ventilation while in flight.
d) Must be manually activated.
43.
243. What is the function of the ram air valve?
a) Emergency smoke removal and ventilation in the event of dual pack failure.
b) Ventilation while on the ground.
c) Avionics cooling.
d) Cargo ventilation.
44.
244. What position do the pack valves go to in the event of a loss of the bleed system pressure?
a) They remain in their last position.
b) Full open.
c) Mid position.
d) Closed.
45.
245. What is the maximum altitude associated with the pressurization system?
a) 41,100 feet.
b) 38,500 feet
c) 39,800 feet
d) 39,500 feet
46.
246. Aft cargo ventilation is controlled by:
a) The aft cargo rotary selector knob.
b) The zone controller and the SDCU.
c) The cargo ventilation controller.
d) All of the above are correct.
47.
247. What limitation is associated with the ram air valve?
a) Do not open if cabin pressure is greater than 1 psi.
b) Only open while on the ground.
c) Will not open if the DITCHING switch is off.
d) Operation is automatic.
48.
248. Which of the following statements is correct concerning conditioned air?
a) Recirculated air, conditioned air and hot trim air are mixed then distributed to each zone.
b) Conditioned air and trim air are mixed then distributed to each zone.
c) Recirculating fans draw cabin air to a mixing unit where conditioned air is added.
d) Hot trim air is added to the mixing unit before distribution to each zone.
49.
249. What happens when a temperature selector rotary knob is adjusted?
a) A signal is sent to the zone controller requesting a different temperature.
b) The associated trim air valve immediately moves to a different position.
c) Nothing as there is no relationship between a temperature selector knob and the trim air valve.
d) None of the above is correct.
50.
250. With the pressurization system in the automatic mode, which valves are closed when the ditching push button is selected on?
a) All valves below the water line.
b) APU inlet.
c) Only the avionics cooling valves.
d) The engine bleed valves.
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