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1. According to the Chicago convention, aircraft of contracting states shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting states and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:
a) To aircraft on non-commercial flights only.
b) To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services.
c) To aircraft of scheduled air services only.
d) To aircraft engaged in commercial non-scheduled flights only.
2. For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?
a) The rules established under the convention of international civil aviation.
b) The rules established by the state of registry of the aircraft.
c) The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft.
d) The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas overflown.
3. Which of the following ICAO documents contain international standards and recommended practices (SARPS)?
a) Procedures for air navigation services (PANS).
b) Regional supplementary procedures (SUPPS).
c) Annexes to the convention on international civil aviation.
d) ICAO technical manuals.
4. According to which convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?
a) The convention of Rome.
b) The convention of Tokyo.
c) The convention of Warsaw.
d) The convention of Chicago.
5. Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface?
a) The Montreal convention.
b) The Rome convention.
c) The Tokyo convention
d) The Guatemala convention
6. Annex 17 to the convention of Chicago covers:
d) Operation of aircraft
7. The international civil aviation organization (ICAO) establishes:
a) Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.
b) Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
c) Aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
d) Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
8. The international civil aviation organization (ICAO.) was established by the international convention of:
c) The Hague
9. The second freedom of the air is the:
a) Right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states.
b) Right to land for a technical stop
c) Right to overfly without landing
d) Right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic).
10. The first freedom of the air is:
a) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to another state.
b) The right to land for a technical stop.
c) The right to overfly without landing.
d) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states.
11. The loading limitations shall include:
a) All limiting mass, centers of gravity position and floor loadings
b) All limiting mass, centers of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadings
c) All limiting mass and centers of gravity
d) All limiting mass, mass distributions and centers of gravity
12. Load factors has the following meaning:
a) The loads assumed to occur in the anticipated operating conditions
b) The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions
c) The ratio of a specified load to the mass of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions
d) The ratio of a specified load to the mass or the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic and inertia forces
13. The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:
a) The state of registry
b) The international civil aviation organization
c) The state of registry and accepted by the international telecommunication union
d) The international telecommunication union
14. The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
a) The state of registry or common mark registering authority
b) The international civil aviation organization
c) The state of registry only
d) The international telecommunication union
15. The certificate of registration shall:
a) Be visible to the passengers at all times.
b) Be carried on board the aircraft at all times.
c) Be reproduced on the portion of the airline ticket that stays with the passenger
d) Both a and c are correct.
16. The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is :
a) 6 months
b) 5 years
c) 1 year
d) 2 years
17. The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot license shall not be less than :
a) 18 years of age
b) 21 years of age
c) 17 years of age
d) 16 years of age
18. An applicant for a commercial pilot license shall hold:
a) A current class 1 medical assessment
b) A current class 3 medical assessment
c) A current class 2 medical assessment
d) A current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the license
19. The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
a) The license is issued or validated
b) The medical assessment is issued
c) The license is issued or renewed
d) The license is delivered to the pilot
20. When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licenses - aeroplane and helicopter - have passed their 40th birthday, the medical examination shall be reduced from :
a) 12 months to 6 months
b) 24 months to 12 months
c) 12 months to 3 months
d) None of the answers are correct
21. Type ratings shall be established:
a) Only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots
b) Only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter
c) For any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority
d) All the answers are correct
22. According to VAR, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:
a) A minimum crew of two pilots under IFR
b) Operations by pilots under training.
c) For the carriage of passengers at night.
d) A minimum crew of two pilots plus a flight engineer.
23. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than:
a) 1,500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
b) 2,000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
c) 1,000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
d) 1,000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km
24. The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
a) The airliner operator
b) The commander
c) The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace
d) The aircraft owner
25. Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?
a) Military aircraft
b) Emergency aircraft
c) VIP (head of state) aircraft
d) Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention
26. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following codes in mode "A":
27. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
a) 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
b) 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
c) 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
d) 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
28. Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "you may proceed”?
a) Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.
b) Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.
c) Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.
d) Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.
29. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing
radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate
a) Switching on and off three times the landing lights
b) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
c) Switching on and off four times the landing lights
d) Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
30. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
a) The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling
b) Give way to other aircraft in emergency
c) Continue circling and wait for further instructions
d) The airport is unsafe, do not land
31. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
a) Inform the ATC unit immediately
b) A'djust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
c) If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
d) Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
32. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
a) Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
b) Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
c) Squawk 7700
d) The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit
33. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
a) Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
b) Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist
c) Crossing arms extended above his head
d) Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground
34. An aircraft is flying under instrument flight rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:
a) Adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
b) Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise air traffic services of landing
c) Continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight
d) Descend to en-route minimum safe altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations
35. A red flare addessed to a flying aircraft means :
a) Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
b) Come back and land.
c) Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being
d) Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
36. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
a) On the ground when the engines are running
b) Outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable
c) Outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed
d) While taxiing, but not when it is being towed
37. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
a) Taxiing needs not be confined to the taxiways
b) Landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only
c) Gliderflying is performed outside the landing area
d) This aerodrome is using parallel runways
38. An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
a) Fly the emergency triangle
b) Declare an emergency
c) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1,000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290
d) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure
39. Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
a) Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
b) Must give way to another aircraft.
c) Is cleared to land.
d) Must land immediately and clear the landing area.
40. While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower, series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
a) Must stop.
b) Must vacate the landing area in use
c) Must return to its point of departure
d) May continue to taxi to the take-off area
41. To cross lighted stop bars on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, the following applies:
a) Lighted stop bars may only be crossed with the authorization of the aerodrome control tower.
b) An aircraft shall stop and hold at all lighted stop bars unless otherwise authorized by the aerodrome control tower.
c) An aircraft has to stop and hold at all lighted stop bars if so required by the aerodrome control tower.
d) An aircraft may only proceed further if the lights are switched off.
42. When has a flight plan to be filed at the latest?
a) 60 minutes before departure or, if filed in flight, 10 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area or the point of crossing an airway or advisory route.
b) 60 minutes before the flight plan becomes active.
c) 10 minutes before departure into an advisory area.
d) 60 minutes before departure or, if filed in flight, 30 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area or the point of crossing an airway or advisory route.
43. If the time estimated for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, a revised estimate shall be notified to ATS if the time difference is:
a) Three minutes or more.
b) Plus or minus two minutes or more.
c) In excess of three minutes.
d) None of the above is correct.
44. Which of the following signals is a distress signal?
a) A parachute flare showing a red light.
b) In radiotelephony the spoken words pan, pan.
c) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.
d) The repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights.
45. A horizontal white dumb-bell when displayed on a signal area of an aerodrome means:
a) Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only.
b) Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways and taxiways.
c) Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only.
d) Aircraft are not required to land, take-off and taxi on runways and taxiways
46. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to:
a) Mode A, code 2000 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit.
b) Mode A, code 7000 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit.
c) Mode A, code 7700 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit.
d) Mode A, code 7600 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit.
47. "Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist". This signal from a signalman to an aircraft means:
a) Start engines.
b) Chocks removed.
c) Engage brakes.
d) Release brakes.
48. (IR) An ETA for an IFR flight refers to the following:
c) Touch down.
d) None of the above.
49. Aircraft on the manoeuvring area have to give way to:
a) Aircraft landing.
b) Aircraft taking off.
c) Aircraft landing and taking off.
d) Follow-me vehicles (and pedestrians)
50. What defines a danger area?
a) A zone where military activity includes firing projectiles in the air.
b) Notified airspace (zone or area) where activities dangerous to flight may exist.
c) NOTAM activated airspace where the normal flight rules are disregarded.
d) Airspace of defined dimension where activities dangerous to flight may exist.
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