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151. Where a runway has a displaced threshold, what color are the edge lights between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold showing in the direction of the approach?
152. What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off in an operating minimum below an RVR of approximately 400 m?
a) Centerline lighting.
b) Edge lighting.
c) Edge lighting and centerline lighting.
d) Either edge lighting or centerline lighting.
153. High intensity obstacle lights should be:
a) Fixed orange.
b) Flashing white.
c) Flashing red.
d) Fixed red.
154. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
a) Fixed red.
b) Flashing yellow.
c) Flashing red.
d) Fixed orange.
155. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code:
a) Blue for blankets and protective clothing.
b) Black for food and water.
c) Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
d) Yellow for miscellaneous equipment.
156. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code:
a) Red for food and water.
b) Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
c) Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.
d) Black for food and water.
157. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code:
a) Blue for food and water.
b) Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
c) Black for food and water.
Red for miscellaneous equipment.
158. The ground - air visual code illustrated means:
a) Require assistance
b) Proceeding in the direction shown
c) Please indicate direction
d) Require medical assistance
159. Which of the following is not an international distress frequency?
a) 2430 kHz
b) 2.182 kHz
c) 121.5 MHz
d) 243.0 MHz
160. Selecting an alternate aerodrome, the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:
a) 80% of the landing distance available.
b) 70% of the landing distance available.
c) 50% of the landing distance available
d) 60% of the landing distance available.
161. For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that :
a) Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with all engines operating.
b) Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.
c) Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.
d) Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed all engines operating.
162. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are:
a) At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
b) At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
c) At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
d) At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
163. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that:
a) Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board.
b) All the flight crew be on board.
c) The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.
d) Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
164. The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :
a) The manufacturer
b) The aircraft manufacturer's list
c) The operator
d) The aircraft state of registry
165. The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :
a) The operator.
b) The aircraft manufacturer's list.
c) The manufacturer.
d) The aircraft state of registry.
166. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :
a) 550 m
b) 800 m
c) 350 m
d) 500 m
167. The term decision height (DH) is used for :
a) A conventional approach.
b) An indirect approach.
c) A precision approach.
d) A conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver.
168. A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than :
a) 50 NM
b) 100 NM
c) 200 NM
d) 400 NM
169. The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account: 1. Equipment available for navigation 2. Dimensions and characteristics of the runways 3. Composition of the flight crew 4. Obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas 5. Facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions.
170. For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of
171. A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :
a) 50 m
b) 200 m
c) 100 m
d) 250 m
172. A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :
a) 75 m
b) 250 m
c) 150 m
d) 200 m
173. A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with :
a) A decision height of at least 200 ft
b) A decision height of at least 50 ft
c) A decision height of at least 100 ft
d) No decision height
174. During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:
a) The outer marker (OM).
b) The start final descent point (glide slope intersection).
c) The FAF.
d) The middle marker.
175. In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:
a) Mach number.
b) Indicated airspeed.
c) Ground speed.
d) True airspeed.
176. For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:
a) One Inertial Navigation System (INS).
b) Two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).
c) One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS).
d) Two independent Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).
177. In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is:
a) 118.800 MHz
b) 121.800 MHz
c) 131.800 MHz
d) 128.800 MHz
178. The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from :
a) 30° North to 90° North.
b) 27° North to 70° North.
c) 27° North to 90° North.
d) 30° North to 70° North.
179. The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:
a) 275 and 400.
b) 280 and 400.
c) 280 and 390.
d) 285 and 420.
180. The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is :
a) 15 minutes.
b) 5 minutes.
c) 20 minutes.
d) 10 minutes.
181. The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS Airspace is:
a) 30 NM.
b) 60 NM.
c) 90 NM.
d) 120 NM.
182. For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the lock- on altitude increase. The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of choosing cruising levels which increase during the flight in order to fly :
a) About the optimum altitude
b) Between the lock-on altitude and the optimum altitude
c) About the lock-on altitude
d) Just below the optimum altitude
183. During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:
a) At the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).
b) At the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
c) At the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
d) At the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).
184. When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects: 1. an increase in the take-off distance 2. a diminution of the take-off run 3. an increase in the stalling speed 4. a diminution of the stalling speed 5. a diminution of the climb gradient. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 2, 4, 5
b) 1, 3, 5
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 5
185. The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on: 1. The type and intensity of the showers 2. The ambient temperature 3. The relative humidity 4. The direction and speed of the wind 5. The temperature of the airplane skin 6. The type of fluid, its concentration and temperature. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 3, 5, 6
b) 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
d) 1, 2, 4, 6
186. The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary considerably depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of:
a) Freezing fog
b) Rain on a cold soaked wing
d) Steady snow
187. For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest ?
a) Freezing rain
c) Steady snow
d) Freezing fog
188. Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear?
a) Pitch angle.
b) Vertical speed.
c) Indicated airspeed.
189. In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will: 1. Set the maximum take-off thrust 2. Increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker 3. Pull in the
drag devices (gear and flaps) 4. Keep the airplane's current configuration 5. Try to reach the
maximum lift-to-drag ratio. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 3, 5
c) 1, 3, 5
d) 2, 3
190. Windshear is:
a) A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction variation over a short distance
b) A vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance
c) A horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance
d) A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance
191. To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuver :
a) Below and downwind from the larger aircraft
b) Above and upwind from the larger aircraft
c) Above and downwind from the larger aircraft
d) Below and upwind from the larger aircraft
192. The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :
a) High weight and high speed
b) Low weight and low speed
c) High weight and low speed
d) Low weight and high speed
193. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
a) 9.3 km (5 NM)
b) 11.1 km (6 NM)
c) 3.7 km (2 NM)
d) 7.4 km (4 NM)
194. According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to :
a) MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760 m
b) LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway
c) MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
d) LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
195. According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to :
a) LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
b) LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway)
c) LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway
d) MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
196. DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category includes all aircraft types of :
a) 136,000 Kg or more
b) 146,000 Kg or more
c) 135,000 Kg or more
d) Less than 136,000 Kg but more than 126,000 Kg
197. In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
a) You descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.
b) You go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach.
c) You carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.
d) You climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization.
198. Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a report of the act?
a) The Authority of the State of the operator only
b) The local authority only
c) Both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator
d) The Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the unlawful interference
199. What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference :
a) Code 7700
b) Code 7500
c) Code 7600
d) Code 2000
200. An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to :
a) Increase its approach speed, because the rain affects the lift by deteriorating the boundary layer
b) Carry out an approach with flaps up, in order to avoid exposing too much lifting surface to the rain
c) Reduce the approach speed, because the runway may be very slippery on landing
d) Maintain the normal approach speed up to landing
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