101_150_CAAV_ATPL_QUESTION_BANK

101_150_CAAV_ATPL_QUESTION_BANK

1. 101. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:

a) 7500.
b) 7000.
c) 7700.
d) 7600.

2. 102. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with secondary surveillance radar (SSR)?

a) Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
b) Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600
c) Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communication failure 7500.
d) Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.

3. 103. Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of:

a) 60 nm or more
b) 100 nm or more
c) 75 nm or more
d) 50 nm or more

4. 104. Required navigation performance (RNP) shall be prescribed:

a) By regional air navigation agreements
b) By states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
c) By states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
d) By ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements

5. 105. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:

a) 5 minutes.
b) 15 minutes.
c) 10 minutes.
d) 3 minutes

6. 106. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

a) 3 minutes.
b) 10 minutes.
c) 5 minutes.
d) 15 minutes

7. 107. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

a) 5 minutes.
b) 3 minutes.
c) 6 minutes.
d) 0 minutes

8. 108. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is:

a) 20 nm.
b) 5 nm.
c) 10 nm.
d) 20 nm when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.

9. 109. When applying longitudinal separation based on distance (DME), the minimum separation between two aircraft on reciprocal tracks climbing or descending through the same flight level shall be at least:

a) 6 nm
b) 10 km
c) 3 nm
d) 2 km

10. 110. Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's level?

a) 30° and a distance of 15 nm or more.
b) 15° and a distance of 15 nm or more.
c) 15° and a distance of 15 km or more.
d) 30° and a distance of 15 km or more

11. 111. ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:

a) Below 1,500 m (5,000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
b) Below 2,000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
c) Below 900 m (3,000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
d) Cumulonimbus

12. 112. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated a342 z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of :

a) 15 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190
b) 15 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200
c) 22.5 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
d) 25 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190

13. 113. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated b235 y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of:

a) 25.0 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
b) 22.5 nm between 30° and 90° at and above FL 260
c) 22.5 nm between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200
d) 20 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200

14. 114. A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:

a) 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks.
b) 10 minutes prior to departure.
c) 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks.
d) 60 minutes prior to departure.

15. 115. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:

a) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
b) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
c) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
d) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure

16. 116. Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?

a) The aircraft operator.
b) The pilot in command.
c) The ATC.
d) The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan.

17. 117. In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when:

a) The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
b) The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
c) The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.
d) The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure.

18. 118. Change from IFR to VFR will always take place :

a) When the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC
b) On the initiative of the aircraft commander
c) At the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions
d) As instructed by an air traffic control unit

19. 119. Aircraft in which wake turbulence category shall include their category immediately after the call sign in the initial radiotelephony contact with the aerodrome control tower or the approach control office prior to departure or arrival?

a) Medium aircraft.
b) Heavy aircraft.
c) Medium and heavy aircraft.
d) Medium, heavy and light aircraft

20. 120. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:

a) The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed with ATC.
b) He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request.
c) He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.
d) The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned.

21. 121. Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:

a) Prescribed by the aircraft operations.
b) Decided on pilot's discretion.
c) The weather permits.
d) Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.

22. 122. A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track" way- point. This minimum is:

a) 80 nm.
b) 50 nm.
c) 60 nm.
d) 20 nm.

23. 123. One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:

a) 45° immediately after take-off.
b) 15° immediately after take-off.
c) 30° immediately after take-off.
d) 25° immediately after take-off

24. 124. Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:

a) The preceding aircraft is 30 kt or faster than the following aircraft.
b) The preceding aircraft is 20 kt or faster than the following aircraft.
c) The preceding aircraft is 40 kt or faster than the following aircraft.
d) The preceding aircraft is 10 kt or faster than the following aircraft.

25. 125. What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?

a) 500 feet
b) 1,500 feet
c) 1,000 feet
d) 2,000 feet

26. 126. During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling, the pilot should contact departure control:

a) Before penetrating the clouds.
b) When clear of the airport and established on the first heading given in the clearance.
c) When advised by tower.
d) After take-off.

27. 127. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that :

a) The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
b) The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
c) The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
d) The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

28. 128. When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than :

a) 25 degrees
b) 20 degrees
c) 30 degrees
d) 15 degrees

29. 129. Under which circumstances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument approach procedure?

a) If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach procedure and the aircraft is cleared for a visual approach.
b) If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach procedure.
c) Under no circumstances a pilot may deviate from a published instrument approach procedure.
d) None of the above is correct.

30. 130. Which wake turbulence radar separation minima shall be applied between a heavy aircraft and a succeeding medium aircraft during the approach and departure phases of a flight?

a) 5 nm.
b) 2.5 nm.
c) 4 nm.
d) 6 nm

31. 131. What is meant when a departure controller instructs you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to an airway?

a) Radar service is terminated.
b) Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
c) You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
d) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

32. 132. The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?

a) The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
b) Position reports may be omitted
c) The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft
d) The aircraft is subject to positive control

33. 133. When a radar operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading:

a) 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track)
b) 030° true
c) 030° magnetic
d) 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)

34. 134. "A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off" is the definition for:

a) Stopway.
b) Runway strip.
c) Runway end safety area.
d) Clearway.

35. 135. "An area symmetrical about the extended runway centerline and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway" is the definition for:

a) Clearway.
b) Stopway.
c) Runway end safety area.
d) None of the above.

36. 136. The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where:

a) An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
b) A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.
c) A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.
d) An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.

37. 137. "ASDA" (acceleration stop distance available) is:

a) The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided)
b) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided)
c) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if provided)
d) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway

38. 138. "Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures:

a) Precision approach runways in general.
b) Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
c) Precision approach runways category I, II and III.
d) Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.

39. 139. "TODA" take-off distance available is:

a) The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
b) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if provided).
c) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
d) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.

40. 140. In the "PAPI" system, the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:

a) Above the approach slope.
b) Below the approach slope.
c) Only on the approach slope
d) On or close to the approach slope.

41. 141. Taxiway edge lights shall be:

a) Fixed showing green.
b) Fixed showing yellow.
c) Flashing showing blue.
d) Fixed showing blue.

42. 142. Runway end lights shall be:

a) Fixed lights showing variable white.
b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.
c) Fixed lights showing variable red.
d) Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway

43. 143. Runway threshold lights shall be:

a) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.
b) Fixed lights green colors.
c) Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.
d) Fixed lights showing green or white colors

44. 144. Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:

a) Fixed lights, white or yellow color.
b) Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
c) Fixed lights showing variable white.
d) Flashing white.

45. 145. Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:

a) Fixed green.
b) Flashing white.
c) Flashing green.
d) Fixed white.

46. 146. The light shown by an "aerodrome identification beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:

a) Green color identification given by Morse code.
b) White and green color identification given by Morse code.
c) Blue color identification given by Morse code.
d) White color identification given by Morse code.

47. 147. In the "VASIS", how many light units are in each wing bar?

a) 3.
b) 4.
c) 2.
d) 5.

48. 148. What color is taxiway edge lighting?

a) Blue
b) White
c) Green
d) Yellow

49. 149. What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?

a) The threshold.
b) The beginning of the touch down zone.
c) A displaced threshold.
d) 1,000 ft from the end zone.

50. 150. What color are runway edge lights?

a) White
b) Blue
c) Yellow
d) Red

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